How Does Quantum Tunneling Affect Particle Reflection?

Therefore, we have shown that the reflection coefficient R is equal to the expression you have derived, and this completes the solution to the problem. In summary, the Schrödinger equation for a particle in Region 1 is \frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} =k^2 \psi with k_1= \frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar}, and the wave function in Region 1 is \psi (x) = Ae^{ik_1x} + Be^{-ik_1x}. In Region 2, the Schrödinger equation is \frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} = -k^2
  • #1
roam
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Homework Statement



A beam of particles of energy E is incident from the left on a rectangular step of infinite width and height U0, situated at the origin, with E > U0, as shown in the diagram.

http://img39.imageshack.us/img39/5918/problemda.jpg

(a) Write down the Schrodinger equation for a particle in Region 1, and give a general expression for its wave function in terms of the wave number k1 in Region 1. Give the expression for k1 also. Repeat the same process for Region 2 and write an expression for k2.(b) By applying the boundary conditions at the origin, show that the reflection coefficient R is given by

[itex]R=\frac{(k_1-k_2)^2}{(k_1+k_2)^2}[/itex]

Homework Equations



Relevant boundary conditions:

[itex]A+B=C+D[/itex]

[itex]ikA-ikB=-\alpha C + \alpha D[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



(a) In region 1 I believe the potential is 0 so the Schrodinger equation in this region is:

[itex]-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} = E \psi[/itex]

or

[itex]\frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} =k^2 \psi[/itex]

[itex]k_1= \frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar}[/itex]

A general solution to this would be:

[itex]\psi (x) = Ae^{ik_1x} + Be^{-ik_1x}[/itex]

Now for Region 2 the potential is U(x)=U0 so the equation is

[itex]-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2}-U_0 \psi = E \psi[/itex]

[itex]\implies \frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} = -k^2 \psi[/itex]

[itex]k_2= \frac{\sqrt{2m(E+U_0)}}{\hbar}[/itex]

And wave function is [itex]\psi(x) = Ce^{-\alpha x} + De^{\alpha x}[/itex]

where [itex]\alpha= \frac{\sqrt{2m(U-E)}}{\hbar}[/itex]

I hope everything is correct so far. I would appreciate it if anyone could correct me if I'm wrong.

(b) So I'm not sure if my approach is correct, but since in my notes the reflection coefficient is defined as

[itex]R= \frac{|B|^2}{|A|^2}[/itex]​

I have substituted k1 and k2 into (k1-k2)2/(k1-k1)2 to see if we can simplify it to yield the same expression:

[itex]\frac{\left(\frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar} - \frac{\sqrt{2m(E+U_0)}}{\hbar} \right)^2}{\left(\frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar} + \frac{\sqrt{2m(E+U_0)}}{\hbar} \right)^2}[/itex]

[itex]= \frac{-4mE+2mU_0}{2mU_0}[/itex]

So how can I show that this is equal to the reflection coefficient R? :confused:
Any guidance is appreciated.
 
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  • #2

Thank you for your post. Your approach to solving this problem is correct so far. However, in order to show that the expression you have derived is equal to the reflection coefficient R, you need to apply the boundary conditions at the origin.

From the Schrödinger equation, we know that the wave function and its first derivative must be continuous at the boundary. This means that at x=0, we have:

\psi_1(0) = \psi_2(0)

and

\frac{d\psi_1}{dx}(0) = \frac{d\psi_2}{dx}(0)

where \psi_1 is the wave function in Region 1 and \psi_2 is the wave function in Region 2.

Using the general expressions for the wave functions that you have derived, we can write:

A + B = C + D

and

ik_1A - ik_1B = -\alpha C + \alpha D

Solving these equations for B and D, we get:

B = \frac{ik_1-\alpha}{ik_1 + \alpha} A

and

D = \frac{ik_1 + \alpha}{ik_1 + \alpha} C

Substituting these values into the reflection coefficient R, we get:

R = \frac{|B|^2}{|A|^2} = \frac{\left(\frac{ik_1-\alpha}{ik_1 + \alpha} \right)^2}{\left(\frac{ik_1 + \alpha}{ik_1 + \alpha} \right)^2} = \frac{(k_1-\alpha)^2}{(k_1+\alpha)^2}

Now, we can substitute the expressions for k_1 and \alpha that you have derived in part (a) into this expression to get:

R = \frac{\left(\frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar} - \frac{\sqrt{2m(E+U_0)}}{\hbar} \right)^2}{\left(\frac{\sqrt{-2mE}}{\hbar} + \frac{\sqrt{2m(E+U_0)}}{\hbar} \right)^2} = \frac{-4mE+2mU_0}{2mU_0}

which is the same expression
 

Related to How Does Quantum Tunneling Affect Particle Reflection?

1. What is Quantum Tunnelling?

Quantum tunnelling is a phenomenon in which a particle can pass through a potential barrier even though it does not have enough energy to overcome it. This is possible due to the probabilistic nature of quantum mechanics, where particles can exist in multiple states simultaneously.

2. How does Quantum Tunnelling occur?

Quantum tunnelling occurs when a particle approaches a potential barrier and has a chance to "tunnel" through it, rather than being reflected or absorbed by the barrier. This is due to the wave-like nature of particles, where they can exist in multiple locations at once and have a probability of being found on the other side of the barrier.

3. What is the significance of the Quantum Tunnelling problem?

The quantum tunnelling problem is significant because it challenges our understanding of classical physics. It also has practical applications in technology, such as in tunnel diodes and scanning tunnelling microscopes.

4. Can Quantum Tunnelling be observed in everyday life?

Quantum tunnelling is a phenomenon that occurs at the atomic and subatomic level, so it is not directly observable in everyday life. However, its effects can be seen in various technologies and natural processes, such as radioactive decay and the operation of transistors.

5. How does Quantum Tunnelling relate to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle?

Quantum tunnelling is closely related to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle, which states that it is impossible to simultaneously know the exact position and momentum of a particle. This is because in order for a particle to tunnel through a barrier, its position and momentum must have uncertain values.

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