- #1
granpa
- 2,268
- 7
if the magnetic field of an electron is thought of as being due to a current then the curl of the mugnetic field is nonzero only where the electric change exists. the field is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the charge and is strongest perpendicular to its motion and tends toward zero in the direction of its motion. very simple.
or if we think of the magnetic field at every point as being proportional to EXV then we get the same result but with a different interpretation. the magnetic field becomes the result of a MOVING (not changing) electric field. but that only works if the electric field extends forever (as the magnetic field would extend forever even if the electric field didnt).
but what if the magnetic field is thought of as being due to a changing electric field? then its not so simple. then the curl of the magnetic field is nonzero all over the place and I have no idea what the resulting field would look like.
so which is the case?
or if we think of the magnetic field at every point as being proportional to EXV then we get the same result but with a different interpretation. the magnetic field becomes the result of a MOVING (not changing) electric field. but that only works if the electric field extends forever (as the magnetic field would extend forever even if the electric field didnt).
but what if the magnetic field is thought of as being due to a changing electric field? then its not so simple. then the curl of the magnetic field is nonzero all over the place and I have no idea what the resulting field would look like.
so which is the case?
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