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MarkFL
Gold Member
MHB
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A while back, I dug out a topic I worked on many years ago after taking a course in ordinary differential equations and I was left with an unanswered question, which I thought I would post here. While my question arose from studying numeric methods for approximating the solutions to ODEs, I feel it is probably more of a question in numeric analysis.
I was analyzing the correlation between the approximation methods for definite integrals and for first order initial value problems via the anti-derivative form of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. In an attempt to determine the rate of convergence for the various methods, I have observed what I believe to be a pattern, but had difficulty in proving a hypothesis.
I began by using the IVP:
$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}=y$ where $y(0)=1$
and used the explicit numerical schemes to approximate y(1) which led to approximations for $e$.
Analysis of Euler's method (Riemann sum of regular partitions) gave rise to
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 1.
Analysis of the improved Euler's method (trapezoidal scheme) and the 2nd order Runge-Kutta method (mid-point scheme) which both use Euler's method as a predictor-corrector, show that both give rise to:
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{2n^2} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 2.
Analysis of the 4th order Runge-Kutta method (Simpson's or prismoidal scheme) gave rise to:
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{2n^2}+\frac{1}{6n^3}+\frac{1}{24n^4} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 4.
My hypothesis is that an explicit numerical scheme that yields
(1) $\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\sum_{i=0}^{p}\left(\frac{1}{i!n^{i}} \right) \right)^n$
will be of order $p$.
Interestingly, two of the implicit methods yield the formula
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2n+1}{2n-1} \right)^n$
but I did not explore its rate of convergence or what type of formula an implicit method of order $p$ will yield.
While it was a simple enough matter to show that (1) is valid and that as p increases the rate of convergence improves, demonstrating that this rate of convergence increases linearly as $p$ is another matter entirely. I applied L'Hôpital's rule and Maclaurin expansions for logarithmic functions, but to no avail. I also looked into the use of a Taylor formula of order $p$ because of its relationship to the limit comparison test and its use in the derivation of the Runge-Kutta methods and the Maclaurin power series.
If anyone could shed some light on this or post links to relevant material, I would greatly appreciate it!
I was analyzing the correlation between the approximation methods for definite integrals and for first order initial value problems via the anti-derivative form of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. In an attempt to determine the rate of convergence for the various methods, I have observed what I believe to be a pattern, but had difficulty in proving a hypothesis.
I began by using the IVP:
$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx}=y$ where $y(0)=1$
and used the explicit numerical schemes to approximate y(1) which led to approximations for $e$.
Analysis of Euler's method (Riemann sum of regular partitions) gave rise to
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 1.
Analysis of the improved Euler's method (trapezoidal scheme) and the 2nd order Runge-Kutta method (mid-point scheme) which both use Euler's method as a predictor-corrector, show that both give rise to:
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{2n^2} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 2.
Analysis of the 4th order Runge-Kutta method (Simpson's or prismoidal scheme) gave rise to:
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{2n^2}+\frac{1}{6n^3}+\frac{1}{24n^4} \right)^n$
Use of a limit comparison test shows this scheme to be of order 4.
My hypothesis is that an explicit numerical scheme that yields
(1) $\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\sum_{i=0}^{p}\left(\frac{1}{i!n^{i}} \right) \right)^n$
will be of order $p$.
Interestingly, two of the implicit methods yield the formula
$\displaystyle e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2n+1}{2n-1} \right)^n$
but I did not explore its rate of convergence or what type of formula an implicit method of order $p$ will yield.
While it was a simple enough matter to show that (1) is valid and that as p increases the rate of convergence improves, demonstrating that this rate of convergence increases linearly as $p$ is another matter entirely. I applied L'Hôpital's rule and Maclaurin expansions for logarithmic functions, but to no avail. I also looked into the use of a Taylor formula of order $p$ because of its relationship to the limit comparison test and its use in the derivation of the Runge-Kutta methods and the Maclaurin power series.
If anyone could shed some light on this or post links to relevant material, I would greatly appreciate it!