- #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
- 3,836
- 0
Hello! (Wave)
We consider the finite difference method for the approximation
$\left\{\begin{matrix}
-u''(x)+q(x)u(x)=f(x)\\
u'(a)=u'(b)=0
\end{matrix}\right.$
and let $K$ be the $(N+2) \times (N+2)$ matrix of the method. Let $v \in \mathbb{R}^{N+2}, v=\begin{pmatrix}
v_0\\
v_1\\
\dots\\
\dots\\
\dots\\
v_{N+1}
\end{pmatrix}$If $(Ku)_i \leq 0 \forall i=0,1, \dots, N-1$ then $\max_{1 \leq i \leq N} \{ v_i \} \leq \max \{ v_0, v_{N+1},0\} (\star)$Proof:
We suppose that $(\star)$ does not hold.
Then $\exists n \in \{ 1,2, \dots, N\}$ such that $v_n= \max_{1 \leq i \leq N} v_i >0$, $v_n>v_0$ and $v_n > v_{N+1}$.Now $(Ku)_n=u_{n-1}+(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n-v_{n+1} \leq 0 \Rightarrow (2+h^2 q(x_n)) v_n \leq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1}$
but $v_n \geq v_{n-1}$ and $v_n \geq v_{n+1} \Rightarrow 2 v_n \geq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1}$
Thus, $(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n \leq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1} \leq 2 v_n$This can only hold if $q(x_n)=0$ and $v_n=v_{n-1}=v_{n+1} \Rightarrow \dots \Rightarrow v_i=v_n \forall i$, contradiction.
Could you explain me why it holds that $(Ku)_n=u_{n-1}+(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n-v_{n+1}$ ? (Thinking)
We consider the finite difference method for the approximation
$\left\{\begin{matrix}
-u''(x)+q(x)u(x)=f(x)\\
u'(a)=u'(b)=0
\end{matrix}\right.$
and let $K$ be the $(N+2) \times (N+2)$ matrix of the method. Let $v \in \mathbb{R}^{N+2}, v=\begin{pmatrix}
v_0\\
v_1\\
\dots\\
\dots\\
\dots\\
v_{N+1}
\end{pmatrix}$If $(Ku)_i \leq 0 \forall i=0,1, \dots, N-1$ then $\max_{1 \leq i \leq N} \{ v_i \} \leq \max \{ v_0, v_{N+1},0\} (\star)$Proof:
We suppose that $(\star)$ does not hold.
Then $\exists n \in \{ 1,2, \dots, N\}$ such that $v_n= \max_{1 \leq i \leq N} v_i >0$, $v_n>v_0$ and $v_n > v_{N+1}$.Now $(Ku)_n=u_{n-1}+(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n-v_{n+1} \leq 0 \Rightarrow (2+h^2 q(x_n)) v_n \leq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1}$
but $v_n \geq v_{n-1}$ and $v_n \geq v_{n+1} \Rightarrow 2 v_n \geq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1}$
Thus, $(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n \leq v_{n-1}+v_{n+1} \leq 2 v_n$This can only hold if $q(x_n)=0$ and $v_n=v_{n-1}=v_{n+1} \Rightarrow \dots \Rightarrow v_i=v_n \forall i$, contradiction.
Could you explain me why it holds that $(Ku)_n=u_{n-1}+(2+h^2 q(x_n))v_n-v_{n+1}$ ? (Thinking)