- #1
Cephal
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Hello everybody,
I have proved that:
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \lim_{n\to+\infty} n\int_{0}^1 x^ng(x)\mathrm{d}x=g(1)\)
with \(\displaystyle g \in\mathcal{C}^0(\left[0,1\right],\mathbb{R})\).But I don't know how to prove this:
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \int_0^1 x^n f(x)\mathrm{d}x=\dfrac{f(1)}{n}-\dfrac{f(1)+f'(1)}{n^2}+o_{+\infty}(\dfrac{1}{n^2})\)
with \(\displaystyle f\in\mathcal{C}^1(\left[0,1\right],\mathbb{R})\).
(Tongueout)
Thank you for your answers.
I have proved that:
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \lim_{n\to+\infty} n\int_{0}^1 x^ng(x)\mathrm{d}x=g(1)\)
with \(\displaystyle g \in\mathcal{C}^0(\left[0,1\right],\mathbb{R})\).But I don't know how to prove this:
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \int_0^1 x^n f(x)\mathrm{d}x=\dfrac{f(1)}{n}-\dfrac{f(1)+f'(1)}{n^2}+o_{+\infty}(\dfrac{1}{n^2})\)
with \(\displaystyle f\in\mathcal{C}^1(\left[0,1\right],\mathbb{R})\).
(Tongueout)
Thank you for your answers.
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