- #1
Hall
- 351
- 88
- TL;DR Summary
- Uniqueness theorem.
Let me first list the four axioms that a determinant function follows:
1. ## d (A_1, \cdots, t_kA_k, \cdots, A_n)=t_kd(A_1, \cdots A_k, \cdots, A_n)## for any ##A_k## and ##t_k##
2. ##d(A_1, \cdots A_k + C , \cdots A_n)= d(A_1, \cdots A_k, \cdots A_n) + d(A_1, \cdots C, \cdots A_n)## for any ##A_k## and ##C##.
3. If any two row vectors are equal the determinant function would yield 0.
4 ##d (I_1, \cdots, I_n) = 1##
Now, I will put the theorem (I'm putting it in spoiler otherwise the post would become too lengthy and we would need too much scrolling)
But what does it prove? Of course, it proves what it wrote, but they christened it as "Uniqueness Theorem", does the name justify what the thing contains? Well, it may but I cannot see, help me seeing it, I implore.
1. ## d (A_1, \cdots, t_kA_k, \cdots, A_n)=t_kd(A_1, \cdots A_k, \cdots, A_n)## for any ##A_k## and ##t_k##
2. ##d(A_1, \cdots A_k + C , \cdots A_n)= d(A_1, \cdots A_k, \cdots A_n) + d(A_1, \cdots C, \cdots A_n)## for any ##A_k## and ##C##.
3. If any two row vectors are equal the determinant function would yield 0.
4 ##d (I_1, \cdots, I_n) = 1##
Now, I will put the theorem (I'm putting it in spoiler otherwise the post would become too lengthy and we would need too much scrolling)
Let d be a determinant function satisfying all four axioms for a determinant function of order n, and let f be another function satisfying axiom 1,2 and 3. Then, for every choice of vectors ##A_1, A_2, \cdots, A_n## in n-space we have:
$$
f(A_1, \cdots A_n) = d(A_1, \cdots A_n) \dot f (I_1, \cdots I_n)$$
If f satisfies axiom 4 we have ## f(A_1, \cdots, A_n)= d(A_1, \cdots, A_n)##.
Proof: Let
$$
g(A_1, \cdots, A_n) = f(A_1, \cdots A_n) - d(A_1, \cdots A_n) \dot f (I_1, \cdots, I_n)$$
As, f and d satisfy the axioms 1,2 and 3, so g would also satisfy those. And therefore we can have
$$
g(A_1, \cdots A_n) = c g(I_1, \cdots I_n)$$
Taking the matrix A =I
$$
g(I_1, \cdots I_n) = f(I_1, \cdots , I_n) - d(I_1, \cdots I_n) \dot f(I_1, \cdots, I_n)$$
$$1/c g(A_1, \cdots A_n ) = 0$$
$$
g(A_1, \cdots A_n)=0$$
Thus, proving the expression given in the statement.
$$
f(A_1, \cdots A_n) = d(A_1, \cdots A_n) \dot f (I_1, \cdots I_n)$$
If f satisfies axiom 4 we have ## f(A_1, \cdots, A_n)= d(A_1, \cdots, A_n)##.
Proof: Let
$$
g(A_1, \cdots, A_n) = f(A_1, \cdots A_n) - d(A_1, \cdots A_n) \dot f (I_1, \cdots, I_n)$$
As, f and d satisfy the axioms 1,2 and 3, so g would also satisfy those. And therefore we can have
$$
g(A_1, \cdots A_n) = c g(I_1, \cdots I_n)$$
Taking the matrix A =I
$$
g(I_1, \cdots I_n) = f(I_1, \cdots , I_n) - d(I_1, \cdots I_n) \dot f(I_1, \cdots, I_n)$$
$$1/c g(A_1, \cdots A_n ) = 0$$
$$
g(A_1, \cdots A_n)=0$$
Thus, proving the expression given in the statement.
But what does it prove? Of course, it proves what it wrote, but they christened it as "Uniqueness Theorem", does the name justify what the thing contains? Well, it may but I cannot see, help me seeing it, I implore.