- #1
ergospherical
- 1,072
- 1,365
I'm perhaps not so interested in the "correct" answer but rather whether the methodology is valid. Let's say Amazon's market cap is ##\sim $2 \mathrm{T}##. The average item ordered off of Amazon is ##\sim $20##, and since they're about high-volumes & low-margins an estimate for the gross profit margin might be ##\sim 2 \%##, implying a gross profit per sale of ##\mathrm{GPS} \sim $0.40##.
If the total sales per year is ##\mathrm{N}## then annual gross profit is ##\mathrm{AGP} \equiv \mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{GPS}##. Assuming (!) this remains constant year-on-year, forever, then the present (discounted) value of this cash flow is\begin{align*}
\mathrm{PV} = \mathrm{AGP} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^n} = \dfrac{\mathrm{AGP}}{r}
\end{align*}where ##r \sim 0.1 \%## is the interest rate, i.e. ##\mathrm{N} = \dfrac{\mathrm{PV} \cdot r} {\mathrm{GPS}} \sim \dfrac{$2\mathrm{T} \cdot 0.1 \%}{$0.40} = 5 \mathrm{B}## products per year, or around ##14 \mathrm{M}## products per day! How is it for an estimate - at a glance this value seems a little too high?
If the total sales per year is ##\mathrm{N}## then annual gross profit is ##\mathrm{AGP} \equiv \mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{GPS}##. Assuming (!) this remains constant year-on-year, forever, then the present (discounted) value of this cash flow is\begin{align*}
\mathrm{PV} = \mathrm{AGP} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{(1+r)^n} = \dfrac{\mathrm{AGP}}{r}
\end{align*}where ##r \sim 0.1 \%## is the interest rate, i.e. ##\mathrm{N} = \dfrac{\mathrm{PV} \cdot r} {\mathrm{GPS}} \sim \dfrac{$2\mathrm{T} \cdot 0.1 \%}{$0.40} = 5 \mathrm{B}## products per year, or around ##14 \mathrm{M}## products per day! How is it for an estimate - at a glance this value seems a little too high?