How Much Force is Needed to Stop a Spinning Grinding Wheel in 20 Seconds?

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To stop a spinning grinding wheel weighing 1.6 kg and 19 cm in diameter, rotating at 2400 rev/min, a calculation of angular deceleration is necessary. The initial angular velocity is converted to radians per second, yielding 80π rad/sec. The required angular deceleration to stop the wheel in 20 seconds is calculated as -40π rad/sec². The relationship between torque and angular acceleration is established using τ = Iα, where the rotational inertia of the disk must be determined. The frictional force is then calculated using the coefficient of friction, clarifying that the pressing force is the normal force, not the frictional force.
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A piece of metal is pressed against the rim of a 1.6kg, 19-cm-diameter grinding wheel that is turning at 2400 rev/min. The metal has a coeffiecient of friction of .85 with respect to the wheel. When the motor is cut off, with how much force must you press to stop the wheel in 20 sec.?

Not sure I did this right, here's what I did:
2400 rev/min = 80 \pi rad/sec. = \omega_0.
t=20, and \omega_f = \omega_0 + \alpha t. After plugging everything in (w_f=0) I got \alpha = -40 \pi rad/sec^2. Since a = r \alpha, I got a = -3.4 \pi m/sec^2. Then somehow from there I jumped to an answer of 4.624 \pi N. I don't think that's right.
 
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Originally posted by tandoorichicken
Not sure I did this right, here's what I did:
2400 rev/min = 80 \pi rad/sec. = \omega_0.
t=20, and \omega_f = \omega_0 + \alpha t. After plugging everything in (w_f=0) I got \alpha = -40 \pi rad/sec^2.
\alpha = -4\pi. Now that you've calculated \alpha, how do you relate this to force? Make use of \tau = I\alpha to find the torque and thus the frictional force. You will need to know the rotational inertia (I) of a disk; look it up.
 
So once I find the linear force of the wheel do I just multiply that by the coefficient of friction to find the force that I push with?
 
Originally posted by tandoorichicken
So once I find the linear force of the wheel do I just multiply that by the coefficient of friction to find the force that I push with?
No. The force you press with is the normal force; the force producing the torque on the wheel is the friction. Ffriction=μN.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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