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latentcorpse
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On page 14 in the notes attached in this thread:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=457609
(i)In the definition given just above eqn 22, it says "In other words, [itex]\phi_\alpha \cdot \lambda[/itex] is a smooth map from [itex]I[/itex] to [itex]\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] for all charts [itex]\phi_\alpha[/itex]. Where do they pull this from?
(ii) I cannot see how they derive equation 24.
From equation 23, we have
[itex]X_p(f) = \{ \frac{d}{dt} [ f ( \lambda(t))] \}_{t=0}[/itex]
and we can rewrite [itex]f \cdot \lambda = f \cdot \phi^{-1} \cdot \phi \cdot \lambda[/itex] and then I am sure it is just an application of the chain rule but I just cannot see it! In particular why evaluate the 1st bracket at [itex]\phi(p)[/itex] and not [itex]t=0[/itex] and also the [itex]f \cdot \phi^{-1}[/itex] go together to give the [itex]F(x)[/itex] in the 1st brack adn teh [itex]\lambda[/itex] is clearly still in the 2nd bracket, but where has the [itex]\phi[/itex] gone?
Thanks
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=457609
(i)In the definition given just above eqn 22, it says "In other words, [itex]\phi_\alpha \cdot \lambda[/itex] is a smooth map from [itex]I[/itex] to [itex]\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] for all charts [itex]\phi_\alpha[/itex]. Where do they pull this from?
(ii) I cannot see how they derive equation 24.
From equation 23, we have
[itex]X_p(f) = \{ \frac{d}{dt} [ f ( \lambda(t))] \}_{t=0}[/itex]
and we can rewrite [itex]f \cdot \lambda = f \cdot \phi^{-1} \cdot \phi \cdot \lambda[/itex] and then I am sure it is just an application of the chain rule but I just cannot see it! In particular why evaluate the 1st bracket at [itex]\phi(p)[/itex] and not [itex]t=0[/itex] and also the [itex]f \cdot \phi^{-1}[/itex] go together to give the [itex]F(x)[/itex] in the 1st brack adn teh [itex]\lambda[/itex] is clearly still in the 2nd bracket, but where has the [itex]\phi[/itex] gone?
Thanks