How to Derive the Time Evolution of Expectation Values in Quantum Mechanics?

In summary, the operator A in Dirac notation commutes with the Hamiltonian operator, which can be written as: i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi>=\hat{H}|\varphi> and the conjugate is: -i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|=<\varphi|\hat{H}
  • #1
maximus123
50
0
Hi everyone, my problem is this
Using Dirac notation show that

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]> = [itex]\frac{i}{\hbar}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[[itex]\hat{H}[/itex],[itex]\hat{A}[/itex]]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>

where A does not explicitly depend on t

I am given as a hint that the hamiltonian operator in Dirac notation is
i[itex]\hbar[/itex][itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>=[itex]\hat{H}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>

and that the conjugate expression is

-i[itex]\hbar[/itex][itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|=<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{H}[/itex]

I'm a bit stumped, I know that the left hand side of the equation is the time derivative of the expectation value of operator A but as for the right hand side. I tried to expand the commutator as normal as if it were acting on the function (ket) |phi> but this came out to be zero which if true would surely make the whole RHS zero, which makes me think I don't understand what the rhs means. Any help would be appreciated.
 
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  • #2
Perhaps start with the LHS first and rewrite $$\frac{d}{dt} \langle \hat{A} \rangle = \frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi | \hat{A} | \psi \rangle = \frac{d}{dt} \int dx\, \psi^* \hat{A}\, \psi$$

The RHS can be zero but only if ##\hat{A}## and ##\hat{H}## were to commute, but this was not given.
 
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  • #3
Use the product rule one the left hand side first.
Then impose the hint to rewrite some of the terms.
It should become quite clear almost immediately.

An extra question, does it change a lot if the operator A does explicitly depend on time?
 
  • #4
Thanks to both of you, I think I have it

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]> = <[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{A}[/itex][itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]> + [itex]\hat{A}[/itex][itex]\varphi[/itex]>[itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|

then from the hints

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex](|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>) = [itex]\frac{\hat{H}}{i\hbar}[/itex]( |[itex]\varphi[/itex]>) and [itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex](<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|) = -[itex]\frac{\hat{H}}{i\hbar}[/itex]( <[itex]\varphi[/itex]|)

Substitute those in, do a bit of simplifying and rearranging then I got the correct answer. Thanks a bunch

I do have another question if I may

I have to show how we get the commutation identity [[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B^{2}}[/itex]]=[[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B}[/itex]][itex]\hat{B}[/itex] + [itex]\hat{B}[/itex][[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B}[/itex]] but am having trouble, I'd be very grateful for any suggestions in the right direction.

Thanks again
 
  • #5
maximus123 said:
I have to show how we get the commutation identity [[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B^{2}}[/itex]]=[[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B}[/itex]][itex]\hat{B}[/itex] + [itex]\hat{B}[/itex][[itex]\hat{A}[/itex],[itex]\hat{B}[/itex]] but am having trouble, I'd be very grateful for any suggestions in the right direction.

Thanks again
Try working with the RHS this time and show that it reduces to the LHS.
Also, [itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]> = <[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\hat{A}[/itex][itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]> + [itex]\hat{A}[/itex][itex]\varphi[/itex]>[itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|

in the second term, I think that should be ##\left( \frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi | \right) \, \hat{A} \psi,## when you are dealing with operators, the ordering matters.
 
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  • #6
Thanks for the help with the last question, hadn't realized it would be so easy, however for my original problem, what I meant in that term you flagged up is

([itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>)([itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|)

Is this not correct? I thought

([itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>)([itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|) = ([itex]\frac{d}{dt}[/itex]<[itex]\varphi[/itex]|)([itex]\hat{A}[/itex]|[itex]\varphi[/itex]>)

Is that not right?

Thanks again
 
  • #7
No it's not right. It's like [itex]\mathbf{v}^T\mathbf{w} \neq \mathbf{w} \mathbf{v}^T[/itex]

The first results in a scalar (it's a representation of an inner product), the second results in a higher order tensor (or in other words it's an outer product).

[itex]\langle a \mid b \rangle[/itex] is a scalar.
[itex]\mid a \rangle \langle b\mid[/itex] is an operator that "eats" up [itex]\mid b \rangle[/itex] and results in some multiple of [itex]\mid a \rangle [/itex].
 
  • #8
First, if you assume the operator has an explicit time dependence, you can write:
[itex] \frac{d}{dt}\langle \phi |A(x,t)|\phi\rangle = \langle \frac{d\phi}{dt}|A|\phi\rangle +\langle \phi|\frac{dA}{dt}|\phi \rangle +\langle \phi |A|\frac{d \phi}{dt}\rangle [/itex]

Then, the R.H.S. can be simplified to:
[itex] \frac{1}{-i\hbar}\langle \phi |HA|\phi \rangle + \frac{1}{i\hbar}\langle \phi |AH|\phi \rangle +\langle \frac{dA}{dt}\rangle[/itex]

The final result is:
[itex] \frac{i}{\hbar}\langle [H,A]\rangle + \langle \frac{dA}{dt}\rangle [/itex]

Drop the dA/dt for no explicit time dependence.
 
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FAQ: How to Derive the Time Evolution of Expectation Values in Quantum Mechanics?

1. What is Dirac Notation?

Dirac Notation, also known as Bra-Ket notation, is a mathematical notation used in quantum mechanics to represent and manipulate quantum states. It uses the symbols ⟨ and | to denote the Bra and Ket vectors, respectively.

2. How is commutation defined in Dirac Notation?

In Dirac Notation, commutation refers to the operation of multiplying two operators in a specific order. The commutator of two operators A and B is defined as [A, B] = AB - BA. This operation is important in quantum mechanics as it helps us understand the behavior of quantum systems.

3. What is the significance of commutation in quantum mechanics?

Commutation is significant in quantum mechanics as it helps us determine whether two operators can be measured simultaneously or not. If the commutator of two operators is equal to zero, then they commute and can be measured simultaneously. If the commutator is non-zero, then they do not commute and cannot be measured simultaneously.

4. How is the commutator used in calculating uncertainties?

The commutator is used in the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle, which states that the product of the uncertainties of two non-commuting operators is always greater than or equal to the absolute value of their commutator. This means that the more two operators do not commute, the more uncertain their measurements will be.

5. Can commutation be extended to more than two operators?

Yes, commutation can be extended to more than two operators. In general, the commutator of n operators is defined as [A1, [A2, ... [An-1, An]]...]. However, it is important to note that not all operators will commute with each other, and the order of operators in the commutator matters.

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