- #1
swampwiz
- 571
- 83
OK, I've found a great explanation of the derivation of the Lorentz transformation, with
x' = γ [ x - v t ]
t' = γ [ t - ( v / c2 ) x ]
so if I take the other term as 0, there is
x'( t = 0 ) = γ x
t'( x = 0 ) = γ t
but the problem is that the time dilation & length contraction use reciprocals of each other, but these transforms use the same
0 → proper
v → relativistic
Δtv = γ Δt0
Lv = ( 1 / γ ) L0
What am I interpreting wrong here?
x' = γ [ x - v t ]
t' = γ [ t - ( v / c2 ) x ]
so if I take the other term as 0, there is
x'( t = 0 ) = γ x
t'( x = 0 ) = γ t
but the problem is that the time dilation & length contraction use reciprocals of each other, but these transforms use the same
0 → proper
v → relativistic
Δtv = γ Δt0
Lv = ( 1 / γ ) L0
What am I interpreting wrong here?