- #1
Mr Davis 97
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For example, it's intuitively clear that ##f(\frac{a}{b}) = (\frac{a}{b})^2## is well-defined, since for any fraction in the domain we get one and only one fraction in the image. However, what is the formal way to prove this? In other words, is there a general way to show that a function is well-defined (or not), just as there is a general way to show that a function is injective or surjective?