How to Prove the Inequality for a Limit of Functions and Integrals?

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  • Thread starter Chris L T521
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In summary, the most common way to prove an inequality for a limit of functions and integrals is by using the squeeze theorem. This involves finding two other functions with known limits that "squeeze" the original function between them. To prove an inequality for a limit, follow these steps: determine the limit of the function, find two other functions with known limits that "squeeze" the original function, use algebraic manipulation to show that the limit of these two functions is also the limit of the original function, and apply the squeeze theorem to prove the inequality. It is important to note that the two functions used must have known limits and must "squeeze" the original function between them. Alternatively, the direct comparison test or the limit comparison test can also
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Chris L T521
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Here's this week's problem.

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Problem: Consider\[f_n = \begin{cases}1 & \forall\,x\in\left[n,n+1\right)\\ 0 & \forall\,x\in\mathbb{R}\backslash\left[n,n+1\right)\end{cases}\]
Show that
\[\int_{\mathbb{R}}\liminf_{n\to\infty}f_n\,dm < \liminf_{n\to\infty}\int_{\mathbb{R}}f_n\,dm.\]

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  • #2
This week's problem was correctly answered by Ackbach. You can find his solution below.

This follows directly from Fatou's Lemma, but you can also simply compute both sides directly:

Note that
$$ \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int_{ \mathbb{R}}f_{n} \, dm= \liminf_{n \to \infty} \left[1 \cdot m([n,n+1)) + 0 \cdot m( \mathbb{R} \setminus [n,n+1)) \right]
= \liminf_{n \to \infty}1=1.$$
But
$$ \int_{ \mathbb{R}} \left[ \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_{n} \right] \, dm= \int_{ \mathbb{R}} 0 \, dm = 0.$$

Since $0<1$, we are done.
 

Related to How to Prove the Inequality for a Limit of Functions and Integrals?

1. How do I prove an inequality for a limit of functions and integrals?

The most common way to prove an inequality for a limit of functions and integrals is by using the squeeze theorem. This involves finding two other functions with known limits that "squeeze" the original function between them.

2. What are the step-by-step instructions for proving an inequality for a limit?

To prove an inequality for a limit, follow these steps:
1. Determine the limit of the function you want to prove the inequality for.
2. Find two other functions with known limits that "squeeze" the original function between them.
3. Use algebraic manipulation to show that the limit of these two functions is also the limit of the original function.
4. Apply the squeeze theorem to prove the inequality.

3. Can I use any two functions to prove an inequality for a limit?

No, the two functions you choose must have known limits and must "squeeze" the original function between them. Otherwise, the proof will not be valid.

4. Is there an alternative method for proving an inequality for a limit of functions and integrals?

Yes, you can also use the direct comparison test or the limit comparison test to prove an inequality for a limit. These methods involve comparing the original function to another function with a known limit.

5. Can I apply the squeeze theorem to prove inequalities for any type of limit?

No, the squeeze theorem can only be applied to limits as x approaches a particular value. It cannot be used for limits at infinity or limits as x approaches a certain direction (e.g. from the left or right).

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