- #1
Kumar8434
- 121
- 5
I've arrived at it not by using some mainstream mathematics. I'm looking for a proof which involves some widely-known mathematics. I'm sorry if I'm using my own notation, but it's the only way to make the expression compact.
The notation is:
$$log^n_xy$$: For log with the base x applied n times to y. For example, $$log^3y=log(log(log(y))$$ all with the same base.
The approximation is:$$\frac{\log_ax_2-\log_ax_1}{\log^{n+1}_ax_2-\log^{n+1}_ax_1}*\frac{1}{((ln(a))^n}\approx \prod_{i=1}^nlog_a^ix_1$$, when $$\frac{\log_{a}^{n}x_2}{\log_{a}^{n}x_1}\approx 1$$
1. Is it correct? 2. How can it be proved?
The notation is:
$$log^n_xy$$: For log with the base x applied n times to y. For example, $$log^3y=log(log(log(y))$$ all with the same base.
The approximation is:$$\frac{\log_ax_2-\log_ax_1}{\log^{n+1}_ax_2-\log^{n+1}_ax_1}*\frac{1}{((ln(a))^n}\approx \prod_{i=1}^nlog_a^ix_1$$, when $$\frac{\log_{a}^{n}x_2}{\log_{a}^{n}x_1}\approx 1$$
1. Is it correct? 2. How can it be proved?