How to Prove $X$ Has Lebesgue Measure Zero?

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In summary, Lebesgue measure zero is a concept in measure theory that refers to the measure of a set being equal to 0, indicating that the set has no volume or size. To prove that a set has Lebesgue measure zero, one must show that it can be covered by a countable collection of intervals whose total length is arbitrarily small. It is possible for a set to have Lebesgue measure zero and still be uncountable, as demonstrated by the Cantor set. The significance of a set having Lebesgue measure zero lies in its ability to allow for a more precise definition of integration. Common techniques for proving that a set has Lebesgue measure zero include using the covering lemma, showing that the set is
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Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Consider a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers $(n_k)_{k = 1}^\infty$, and suppose $X$ is the subset of $[0,2\pi]$ consisting of all $x$ such that the sequence $(\sin(n_k x))_{k = 1}^\infty$ is convergent. Prove $X$ has Lebesgue measure zero.-----

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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Hi MHB community,

Due to illness, I'm posting a solution later than usual. No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.
Let $f(x) = \lim_{k\to \infty} \sin(n_k x)$, for all $x\in X$. By the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma, $\int_X \cos(2n_k x)\, dx \to 0$ as $k \to \infty$. On the other hand, due to the identity $2\sin^2(n_k x) = 1 - \cos(2n_k x)$, the dominated convergence theorem gives $\int_X 2f(x)^2\, dx = \int_X 1\, dx$. Therefore, $f(x) = \pm \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$ for almost every $x\in X$. Again, by the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma and the dominated convergence theorem, $\int_X f(x)\, dx = 0$. Consequently, $m(X) = 0$.
 

FAQ: How to Prove $X$ Has Lebesgue Measure Zero?

What is Lebesgue measure zero?

Lebesgue measure zero is a concept in measure theory that refers to the measure of a set being equal to 0. This means that the set has no volume or size, and is considered "negligible" in terms of its contribution to the overall measure of a larger space.

How do you prove that a set has Lebesgue measure zero?

To prove that a set has Lebesgue measure zero, you must show that it can be covered by a countable collection of intervals whose total length is arbitrarily small. This is known as the "covering lemma" in measure theory.

Can a set have Lebesgue measure zero and still be uncountable?

Yes, it is possible for a set to have Lebesgue measure zero and still be uncountable. For example, the Cantor set is uncountable but has Lebesgue measure zero.

What is the significance of a set having Lebesgue measure zero?

A set having Lebesgue measure zero is significant in measure theory because it allows for a more precise definition of integration. In particular, the Lebesgue integral can be used to integrate functions over sets with measure zero, which is not possible with the Riemann integral.

Are there any common techniques for proving that a set has Lebesgue measure zero?

Yes, there are several common techniques for proving that a set has Lebesgue measure zero. These include using the covering lemma, showing that the set is countable, and using properties of continuous and differentiable functions to prove that the set is "thin" in some sense.

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