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It is quite easy to calculate the volume of the first brillouin zone to be (2pi)^3/V if V is the volume of a unit cell in the real lattice. In many places one can also find the statement that all Brillouin zones have the same volume. I have not however found a proof of this anywhere. The 3D case seemed complicated so I first tried solving hte problem for the 2D case but must have done something wrong as I found that the first and second Brillouin zones have the same volume (or area in the 2D case) but then for the 3rd Brillouin zone I foudn it to be twice of this. Does anybody know a solution to this (either in 2D or even better in 3D)?
Thanks
Thanks