- #1
psie
- 269
- 32
- TL;DR Summary
- Consider ##\{(x,x):x\in\mathbb R\}##. I've managed to show this set is closed in ##\mathbb R^2## by showing its complement is open. Now using what I've already showed, how can I argue that ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## is closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##?
Let ##(f_n)## be a sequence of measurable functions from ##E## into ##\mathbb R##. I'm reading a proof of the fact that the set ##A## of all ##x\in E## for which ##f_n(x)## converges in ##\mathbb R## as ##n\to\infty## is measurable. The proof goes like this (I'm paraphrasing):
Why is ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##? As I said, I can show the diagonal with ##x\in\mathbb R## is closed in ##\mathbb R^2##, but if ##x\in \overline{\mathbb R}## and the space is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##, how does one proceed?
Define ##G:E\to\overline{\mathbb R}^2## by ##G(x)=(\liminf f_n(x),\limsup f_n(x))##. Then ##G## is measurable and if ##D=\{(x,x):x\in\mathbb R\}##, then $$A=\{x\in E:-\infty<\liminf f_n(x)=\limsup f_n(x)<\infty\}=G^{-1}(D).$$So the measurability of ##A## follows since ##D## is measurable subset of ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2## (note that ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## is measurable as a closed subset of ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##).
Why is ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##? As I said, I can show the diagonal with ##x\in\mathbb R## is closed in ##\mathbb R^2##, but if ##x\in \overline{\mathbb R}## and the space is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##, how does one proceed?