How to Strike Through Text in LaTeX?

In summary, we are simplifying the expression $\frac{(a+1)!}{(a-2)!}$, assuming that $n$ and $m$ are positive integers, $a>b$, and $a>2$. Using the factorial notation, we can rewrite the expression as $(a+1)a(a-1)$. Another way to represent this is by canceling out the $(a-2)!$ terms, resulting in $a(a+1)(a-1)$.
  • #1
karush
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Simplify. Assume that $n$ and $m$ are positive integers,
$a>b$, and $a>2$.$\frac{\left(a+1\right)!}{\left(a-2\right)!}$

was helping a friend with this but was clueless
I know that n! $=n(n-1)(n-2) ... $
 
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  • #2
We have that $$(a+1)!=(a+1)\cdot a\cdot (a-1)\cdot (a-2)\cdots 1=(a+1)\cdot a\cdot (a-1)\cdot (a-2)!$$
 
  • #3
So finally
$$\frac{\left(a+1\right)!}{\left(a-2\right)!}=\frac{\left(a+1\right)a\left(a-1\right)\left(a-2\right)...}{\left(a-2\right)!}=\left(a+1\right)a\left(a-1\right)$$
 
  • #4
karush said:
So finally
$$\frac{\left(a+1\right)!}{\left(a-2\right)!}=\frac{\left(a+1\right)a\left(a-1\right)\left(a-2\right)...}{\left(a-2\right)!}=\left(a+1\right)a\left(a-1\right)$$

While that is certainly correct, I think a more clear notation would be:

\(\displaystyle \frac{(a+1)!}{(a-2)!}=\frac{(a+1)a(a-1)\cancel{(a-2)!}}{\cancel{(a-2)!}}=a(a+1)(a-1)\)
 
  • #5
how is a strike though done with latex didn't see a tool for that on the menu?
 
  • #6
karush said:
how is a strike though done with latex didn't see a tool for that on the menu?

I used the \cancel{} command in my post...you can find 2 types of strikethrough in the "algebra" section of the "Quick $\LaTeX$ tool at the bottom right. :)
 

FAQ: How to Strike Through Text in LaTeX?

What is the meaning of $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$?

The expression $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ is a mathematical notation that represents the ratio of the factorial of a number increased by one to the factorial of the same number decreased by two. The exclamation mark in this notation stands for the factorial function, which is the product of all positive integers less than or equal to the given number.

How do you simplify $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$?

To simplify $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$, you can use the property of factorials that states $(n+1)! = (n+1)\times n!$. This means that $(a+1)!$ can be rewritten as $(a+1)\times a!$. Similarly, $(a-2)!$ can be rewritten as $(a-2)\times (a-3)!$. Substituting these values in the original expression, we get $(a+1)!/(a-2)! = (a+1)\times a! / [(a-2)\times (a-3)!]$. The common factor of $(a-2)$ cancels out, leaving us with the simplified form of $(a+1)a$.

What is the value of $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ when $a=2$?

When $a=2$, the expression $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ becomes $(2+1)!/(2-2)! = 3!/0!$. Since the factorial of 0 is defined as 1, this simplifies to 3.

Can $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ be simplified further?

No, $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ cannot be simplified further as it is already in its simplest form, $(a+1)a$.

What is the relationship between $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ and $(a+1)(a-2)$?

There is no direct relationship between $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$ and $(a+1)(a-2)$. However, using the same property of factorials as mentioned in the second question, we can expand $(a+1)(a-2)$ to get $(a+1)(a-2) = (a+1)\times (a-2)\times (a-3)!$. We can then cancel out the common factors of $(a+1)$ and $(a-2)$ to get the simplified form of $(a+1)!/(a-2)!$, which is $(a+1)a$.

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