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BenG549
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How would we know that we "have evolved" - A question about speciation.
I've noticed a few questions in the biology section of PF regarding human evolution. Most of them are about whether we have stopped evolving, or whether our medical knowledge and intervention has slowed down the evolutionary process etc.. Most of these are easily answered by reading the 'introduction to evolution' posted by Ryan_m_b*** but I'm not sure it discusses this (although I might have missed something).
At least conceptually I understand the process of evolution and I understand that "development" in an evolutionary sense does not mean speciation and there are examples of human evolution that don't constitute "a new species" but I'm interested in how we would establish if we had in fact reached a divergence in the evolutionary process i.e. speciation had occurred.
From what I understand the most widely used technical definition defining the difference between species is an inability to breed (at least with the production of fertile offspring)?... I guess it's convenient in that respect that we aren't asexual... but even so I read* that in most cases, the biological speciation concept cannot be practically applied to delimit species, partly because of the extent to which you would need to test breeding in potentially divergent species.
Anyway, I guess my question is how would we establish whether we (a section of our global society) had diverged enough from "our ancestor" in order to limit to possibility of fertile offspring.
I assume that of the different types of geographic speciation, due to our geographical mobility, Sympatric speciation** is the only one that is likely to effect us? But in the event of speciation will we just observe a slow rise in the failed use of fertility treatments?, are there any other widely used cues that separate species other than the ability to produce fertile offspring? (The link I included* mentions a few different concepts but having not formally studied biology to any real academic level I'm not sure how widely accepted or used they are), is this a stupid question lol?
Biology is obviously not my forte, so there is probably a simple answer or qualifying point that I am missing. Although it's biology, so by simple answer I probably mean "In most cases... however" or " It is somewhat accepted... but"
Anyway I've skim read the links posted by Ryan_m_b but I couldn't see an answer to this, if I missed anything obvious let me know. Otherwise any knowledge or insight would be appreciated.
* http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/faq-speciation.html
** http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sympatric_speciation
*** https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=543950
I've noticed a few questions in the biology section of PF regarding human evolution. Most of them are about whether we have stopped evolving, or whether our medical knowledge and intervention has slowed down the evolutionary process etc.. Most of these are easily answered by reading the 'introduction to evolution' posted by Ryan_m_b*** but I'm not sure it discusses this (although I might have missed something).
At least conceptually I understand the process of evolution and I understand that "development" in an evolutionary sense does not mean speciation and there are examples of human evolution that don't constitute "a new species" but I'm interested in how we would establish if we had in fact reached a divergence in the evolutionary process i.e. speciation had occurred.
From what I understand the most widely used technical definition defining the difference between species is an inability to breed (at least with the production of fertile offspring)?... I guess it's convenient in that respect that we aren't asexual... but even so I read* that in most cases, the biological speciation concept cannot be practically applied to delimit species, partly because of the extent to which you would need to test breeding in potentially divergent species.
Anyway, I guess my question is how would we establish whether we (a section of our global society) had diverged enough from "our ancestor" in order to limit to possibility of fertile offspring.
I assume that of the different types of geographic speciation, due to our geographical mobility, Sympatric speciation** is the only one that is likely to effect us? But in the event of speciation will we just observe a slow rise in the failed use of fertility treatments?, are there any other widely used cues that separate species other than the ability to produce fertile offspring? (The link I included* mentions a few different concepts but having not formally studied biology to any real academic level I'm not sure how widely accepted or used they are), is this a stupid question lol?
Biology is obviously not my forte, so there is probably a simple answer or qualifying point that I am missing. Although it's biology, so by simple answer I probably mean "In most cases... however" or " It is somewhat accepted... but"
Anyway I've skim read the links posted by Ryan_m_b but I couldn't see an answer to this, if I missed anything obvious let me know. Otherwise any knowledge or insight would be appreciated.
* http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/faq-speciation.html
** http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sympatric_speciation
*** https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=543950
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