- #1
frank2243
- 10
- 1
Hello,
I am trying to understand the resolution of the following KdV equation. I try to demonstrate it by myself.
The solitary wave solution is :
At first, I created new variable as follows so I could transform the PDE into an ODE.
A = A(p)
p = g(x,t)
g(x,t) = x - ct
I succeeded to transform the PDE to ODE by the chain rule. My problem is when I arrive at that integral :
I read a lot of article and I have found that that integral needs to be solve by hyperbolic trigonometric substitution :
I have found that this is the substitution, but I have found anywhere why it needs that specific one. It might be because I just don't see it as the last time I hade to integrate by trigonometric substitution is a few years ago.
Is there someone on PF that knows why it needs that specific substitution?
Thank you!
(I apologize for my bad english as the language I use everyday is french)
I am trying to understand the resolution of the following KdV equation. I try to demonstrate it by myself.
The solitary wave solution is :
A = A(p)
p = g(x,t)
g(x,t) = x - ct
I succeeded to transform the PDE to ODE by the chain rule. My problem is when I arrive at that integral :
I read a lot of article and I have found that that integral needs to be solve by hyperbolic trigonometric substitution :
I have found that this is the substitution, but I have found anywhere why it needs that specific one. It might be because I just don't see it as the last time I hade to integrate by trigonometric substitution is a few years ago.
Is there someone on PF that knows why it needs that specific substitution?
Thank you!
(I apologize for my bad english as the language I use everyday is french)