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lektroon
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- TL;DR Summary
- Is it really possible to conclude that eternalism must be true following the implications of special relativity like the relativity of simultaneity?
As a layman in physics, I cannot understand the block universe concept followed by Rietdijk-Putnam-Penrose Argument. Let me clarify my question as follows:
Suppose two objects, one stationary and one moving towards the other one at constant relativistic speed, e.g. 05.c and let's also presume that these two objects are space-like separated by a great distance, e.g. 30 billion light years.
Following the time transformation formula of Lorentz transformations, which is:
t' = gamma * (t - v.x/c^2), where
gamma = 1/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
Then the difference between the simultaneities of these two objects becomes around 17.8 billion light years which is far before the BigBang took place! However, we don't know if the time existed before the BigBang.
If that is the case then how can we conclude that the block universe must be true following the implications of special relativity like the relativity of simultaneity as stated in arguments like Rietdijk-Putnam-Penrose?
Suppose two objects, one stationary and one moving towards the other one at constant relativistic speed, e.g. 05.c and let's also presume that these two objects are space-like separated by a great distance, e.g. 30 billion light years.
Following the time transformation formula of Lorentz transformations, which is:
t' = gamma * (t - v.x/c^2), where
gamma = 1/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
Then the difference between the simultaneities of these two objects becomes around 17.8 billion light years which is far before the BigBang took place! However, we don't know if the time existed before the BigBang.
If that is the case then how can we conclude that the block universe must be true following the implications of special relativity like the relativity of simultaneity as stated in arguments like Rietdijk-Putnam-Penrose?
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