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I have a problem and i would like some expert advise. I want proof is to whether i am correct or wrong...not just 'You're wrong'. Please either paste your proof or send me an email...at edited to remove e-mail address
i will explain the problem...i wanted to see if there was a relationship between the area of a square with the same dimensions as a circles diametre. and the area of a circle. for this example let's say that r = 2. then the square would be (2r)^2 and the circle would be PI*r^2.
i divided the area of the square by the area of the circle and i received 1.273239545. It is always the same no matter what the radius...i then multiplied this number by PI. It returned 4. No excess decimals just 4. This intrigued me so i then did the same for 3D sphere and cube with same diametre as measurements. This returned 1.909859317. once again i multiplied it against Pi and it returned 6 without any decimals. This intrigued me once again. So i decided to do it for a 1D version. It gave me 0.6366197724 which when multiplied against Pi gave me 2. so i saw a pattern. for each dimension increased it also increased by 2. So i guessed that it would be 8 for a 4D version. 8/Pi = 2.546479089. When i knew the number i decided that i would use some basic algebra and figure out the equation for a 4d hypersphere. I didn't know the equation so i had to figure it out. I then continued to do step by step and i came up with an equation which recently i noticed that it was different then the one that is well known. But the one that is publicized doesn't work with the relationship of the sphere and cube. I tested the way and it managed to get the correct equations for 1D, 2D, and 3D so i think that it works for 4D. I want someone or some people to help me find any errors in the forumal...please state if it doesn't work but once again please have proof. here is a file with the formula in it attached to this article. i would just ;like to know if i am wrong...plus if anyone knows where i went wrong or if it is just a weird coincidence but nothing bigger or better.
thanks:
LOck-doWN(Kyle Derby MacInnis)
i will explain the problem...i wanted to see if there was a relationship between the area of a square with the same dimensions as a circles diametre. and the area of a circle. for this example let's say that r = 2. then the square would be (2r)^2 and the circle would be PI*r^2.
i divided the area of the square by the area of the circle and i received 1.273239545. It is always the same no matter what the radius...i then multiplied this number by PI. It returned 4. No excess decimals just 4. This intrigued me so i then did the same for 3D sphere and cube with same diametre as measurements. This returned 1.909859317. once again i multiplied it against Pi and it returned 6 without any decimals. This intrigued me once again. So i decided to do it for a 1D version. It gave me 0.6366197724 which when multiplied against Pi gave me 2. so i saw a pattern. for each dimension increased it also increased by 2. So i guessed that it would be 8 for a 4D version. 8/Pi = 2.546479089. When i knew the number i decided that i would use some basic algebra and figure out the equation for a 4d hypersphere. I didn't know the equation so i had to figure it out. I then continued to do step by step and i came up with an equation which recently i noticed that it was different then the one that is well known. But the one that is publicized doesn't work with the relationship of the sphere and cube. I tested the way and it managed to get the correct equations for 1D, 2D, and 3D so i think that it works for 4D. I want someone or some people to help me find any errors in the forumal...please state if it doesn't work but once again please have proof. here is a file with the formula in it attached to this article. i would just ;like to know if i am wrong...plus if anyone knows where i went wrong or if it is just a weird coincidence but nothing bigger or better.
thanks:
LOck-doWN(Kyle Derby MacInnis)
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