I guess it will be the same as i,1-i

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In summary, the complex mapping z → f(z) = (1 + z)/(1 − z) has images of i and 1 − i, with the image of i being i and the image of 1 − i being 1 − 2i. On the real axis, f(t) = (1 + t)/(1 − t) where t is real, and on the imaginary axis, f(ti) = (2ti)/(1 + t^2) where t is real.
  • #1
AkilMAI
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Complex mapping
z → f(z) =(1 + z)/(1 − z)
1.What are the images of i and 1 − i and 2.What are the images of the real and the imaginary axes?
For i we have f(i)=(1+i)/(1-i) since i(depending on the power) can be i,-i,1,-1=>0, (1+i)/(1-i),(1-i)/(1+i)
For 1 − i we have 1,-3,(2-i)/i,(2+i)/i.
Not sure about the second part..
 
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  • #2
James said:
Complex mapping
z → f(z) =(1 + z)/(1 − z)
1.What are the images of i and 1 − i and 2.

Substitute \(i\), \(1 - i\) and \(2\) for z in \(f(z)=\frac{1+z}{1-z}\)

What are the images of the real and the imaginary axes?

For \(z = i\);

\[f(i)=\frac{1+i}{1-i}\]

Now you have to find the real and complex parts of \(f(i)\). Multiply both the numerator and the denominator by \(1+i\).

\[f(i)=\frac{(1+i)^2}{1-i^2}=\frac{(1+2i+i^2)}{2}\]

\[\therefore f(i) = i\]

Hence the real part of \(f(i)\) is zero and the imaginary part is 1. We usually denote this by,

\[Re[f(i)]=0\mbox{ and }Im[f(i)]=1\]

Hope you can continue with the rest of the problem.


For i we have f(i)=(1+i)/(1-i) since i(depending on the power) can be i,-i,1,-1=>0, (1+i)/(1-i),(1-i)/(1+i)

This is wrong. \(i=\sqrt{-1}\)

For 1 − i we have 1,-3,(2-i)/i,(2+i)/i.
Not sure about the second part..

...
 
  • #3
Complex mapping
z → f(z) =(1 + z)/(1 − z)
1.What are the images of i and 1 − i and 2.What are the images of the real and the imaginary axes?
For i we have f(i)=(1+i)/(1-i) since i(depending on the power) can be i,-i,1,-1=>0, (1+i)/(1-i),(1-i)/(1+i)
What powers are you talking about? I see only the first power of i.

$f(i)= \frac{1+ i}{1- i}= \frac{1+ i}{1- i}\frac{1+ i}{1+ i}= \frac{1+ 2i+ i^2}{1+ 1}$
$= \frac{1+ 2i- 1}{2}= i$
That is the only point in the image.
For 1 − i we have 1,-3,(2-i)/i,(2+i)/i.
Again, the image contains the single point $f(1- i)= \frac{1+ (1- i)}{1- (1- i)}= \frac{2- i}{i}= 1- 2i$
Not sure about the second part..
On the real axis, z= t+ 0i. f(t)= \frac{1+ t}{1- t} where t is real. What can you say about the real and imaginary parts of that?
On the imaginary axis, z= 0+ ti. f(ti)= \frac{1+ ti}{1- ti}= \frac{1+ ti}{1- ti}\frac{1+ ti}{1+ ti}= \frac{1+ 2ti+ i^2}{1+ t^2}$
$= \frac{2ti}{1+ t^2}$. What can you say about the real and imaginary parts of that?
 
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FAQ: I guess it will be the same as i,1-i

What does "I guess it will be the same as i,1-i" mean?

"I guess it will be the same as i,1-i" is a mathematical statement that refers to complex numbers. It means that the real and imaginary parts of a complex number will remain the same when multiplied by the imaginary unit (i) and its conjugate (1-i).

How is the statement "I guess it will be the same as i,1-i" relevant in science?

This statement is relevant in many scientific fields, such as physics and engineering, where complex numbers are commonly used to represent electrical circuits, quantum mechanics, and other phenomena. It allows for simplification of equations and can help in solving problems involving complex numbers.

What is the significance of using the imaginary unit (i) and its conjugate (1-i) in this statement?

The imaginary unit (i) and its conjugate (1-i) have specific mathematical properties that make them useful in complex number operations. In this statement, they help maintain the same real and imaginary parts of a complex number when multiplied together.

Can you provide an example of how "I guess it will be the same as i,1-i" is used in science?

One example is in electrical engineering, where the impedance of a resistor, inductor, and capacitor can be represented by complex numbers. The statement "I guess it will be the same as i,1-i" can be applied when calculating the impedance of a circuit with these components in series or parallel.

Is there a mathematical proof for "I guess it will be the same as i,1-i"?

Yes, there is a proof for this statement using the properties of complex numbers. It involves expanding the product of a complex number and its conjugate and showing that it results in the same number with the real and imaginary parts unchanged. This proof can be found in many mathematics textbooks or online resources.

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