- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
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Hey!
I am looking at the identities of the optimal approximation.
At the case where the basis consists of orthogonal unit vectors,the optimal approximation $y \in \widetilde{H} \subset H$, where $H$ an euclidean space, of $x \in H$ from $\widetilde{H}$ can be written $y=(x,e_1) e_1 + (x,e_2) e_2 +... +(x,e_n)e_n$.
$||y||^2=(y,y)=$ $(\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)e_i}, \sum_{j=1}^n{(x,e_j)e_j)} $ $=\sum_{i,j=1}^n{(x,e_i)(x,e_j)(e_i,e_j)}=\sum_{i,j=1}^n{(x,e_i)(x,e_j) \delta_{ij}}=\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)^2}$
So $||y||^2=\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)^2}$, it's the generalized pythagorean theorem.
My question is, why do we take at the one sum $i$ and at the other $j$. Why do we not take at both sums $i$?
I am looking at the identities of the optimal approximation.
At the case where the basis consists of orthogonal unit vectors,the optimal approximation $y \in \widetilde{H} \subset H$, where $H$ an euclidean space, of $x \in H$ from $\widetilde{H}$ can be written $y=(x,e_1) e_1 + (x,e_2) e_2 +... +(x,e_n)e_n$.
$||y||^2=(y,y)=$ $(\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)e_i}, \sum_{j=1}^n{(x,e_j)e_j)} $ $=\sum_{i,j=1}^n{(x,e_i)(x,e_j)(e_i,e_j)}=\sum_{i,j=1}^n{(x,e_i)(x,e_j) \delta_{ij}}=\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)^2}$
So $||y||^2=\sum_{i=1}^n{(x,e_i)^2}$, it's the generalized pythagorean theorem.
My question is, why do we take at the one sum $i$ and at the other $j$. Why do we not take at both sums $i$?