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Jameson
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This is part of a proof I am working on involving idempotent matrices. I believe it is true that for any real symmetric matrix A ($n \times n$ for this), even with repeat eigenvalues, it can be decomposed into the form $A=Q \Lambda Q^{T}$. For the matrix I'm working on, we assume that all eigenvalues of A are 0 or 1.
What I need to show now is that $\Lambda^2=\Lambda$ (which in turn helps me show that $A^2=A$, thus is idempotent). It makes sense intuitively since when doing the row-column multiplications, the only time you would get a non-zero answer is when you have two non-zero elements being multiplied together in the sum, which only occurs when $i=j$. I'm trying to formulate a more rigorous argument for this though.
Just to make sure I'm clear, $\Lambda$ is an $n \times n$ matrix with all non-diagonal entries equal to 0, and diagonal entries equal to 0 or 1.
I know that $ \displaystyle \Lambda^2_{ij} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \Lambda_{ik}\Lambda_{kj}$
Can I start here to make my argument you think?
What I need to show now is that $\Lambda^2=\Lambda$ (which in turn helps me show that $A^2=A$, thus is idempotent). It makes sense intuitively since when doing the row-column multiplications, the only time you would get a non-zero answer is when you have two non-zero elements being multiplied together in the sum, which only occurs when $i=j$. I'm trying to formulate a more rigorous argument for this though.
Just to make sure I'm clear, $\Lambda$ is an $n \times n$ matrix with all non-diagonal entries equal to 0, and diagonal entries equal to 0 or 1.
I know that $ \displaystyle \Lambda^2_{ij} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \Lambda_{ik}\Lambda_{kj}$
Can I start here to make my argument you think?