- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
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Hey!
I have a implicit finite difference method for the wave equation.
At step 0, we set: $W_j^0=v(x_j), j=0,...,J$
At the step 1, we set: $W_j^1=v(x_j)+Dtu(x_j)+\frac{Dt^2}{2}(\frac{v(x_{j-1})-2v(x_j)+v(x_{j+1})}{h^2}+f(x_j,0)), j=0,...,J$
Can that be that at the step 1 $j$ begins from $0$ and ends at $J$?
I have a implicit finite difference method for the wave equation.
At step 0, we set: $W_j^0=v(x_j), j=0,...,J$
At the step 1, we set: $W_j^1=v(x_j)+Dtu(x_j)+\frac{Dt^2}{2}(\frac{v(x_{j-1})-2v(x_j)+v(x_{j+1})}{h^2}+f(x_j,0)), j=0,...,J$
Can that be that at the step 1 $j$ begins from $0$ and ends at $J$?