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Also sprach Zarathustra
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When the following improper integral converges? When it diverges? $$ \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{x^{\alpha}dx}{1+x^{\beta}\sin^2(x)} $$
Also sprach Zarathustra said:When the following improper integral converges? When it diverges?
$$ \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{x^{\alpha}dx}{1+x^{\beta}\sin^2(x)} $$
An improper integral is an integral where one or both of the limits of integration are infinite, or where the integrand function is not defined at some point within the interval of integration.
To determine convergence or divergence of an improper integral, you must evaluate it as a limit. If the limit exists and is finite, the integral converges. If the limit does not exist or is infinite, the integral diverges.
A Type 1 improper integral has one or both of its limits of integration as infinite, while a Type 2 improper integral has an integrand function that is unbounded at some point within the interval of integration.
If the discontinuity is at one of the limits of integration, the integral can be split into two separate integrals and evaluated as limits. If the discontinuity is within the interval of integration, the integral can be evaluated as the sum of two integrals with different intervals of integration, one on either side of the discontinuity.
Yes, an improper integral can have both infinite limits of integration and an unbounded integrand function. In this case, the integral must be evaluated as the sum of two integrals, one with infinite limits and one with a bounded integrand function, to determine convergence or divergence.