- #1
Trying2Learn
- 377
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- TL;DR Summary
- Is this process, correct?
May I ask if the following process is correct?
Given: F=ma
Apply an impulsive force using the dirac delta near 0 (with F nearly constant over the tiny impulsive interval)
ma = Fδ(t)
This is a second order differential equation with a forcing function. However, I cannot readily integrate this differential equation.
Instead, I turn to Linear Momentum:
Initial momentum + (integral of force over time) = Final momentum
mv+=FΔt + mv-
With zero initial velocity, I now have:
v+ = F/(mΔt)
And now I turn my original differential equation to this
ma = 0
With these two initial conditions:
x(0) = 0
v(0) = F/(mΔt)
The solution is:
x(t) = (F/(mΔt)) * t
This seems strange to me.
Is this process correct?
Can someone explain in words (sorry, I am embarrassed) what I am doing (if this is correct)?
Would I get the same results by solving the original equation with a convolution or numerical method?
It seems so strange to me: as if I skirted the complexity of a nonhomogeneous differential equation (I cheated).
Given: F=ma
Apply an impulsive force using the dirac delta near 0 (with F nearly constant over the tiny impulsive interval)
ma = Fδ(t)
This is a second order differential equation with a forcing function. However, I cannot readily integrate this differential equation.
Instead, I turn to Linear Momentum:
Initial momentum + (integral of force over time) = Final momentum
mv+=FΔt + mv-
With zero initial velocity, I now have:
v+ = F/(mΔt)
And now I turn my original differential equation to this
ma = 0
With these two initial conditions:
x(0) = 0
v(0) = F/(mΔt)
The solution is:
x(t) = (F/(mΔt)) * t
This seems strange to me.
Is this process correct?
Can someone explain in words (sorry, I am embarrassed) what I am doing (if this is correct)?
Would I get the same results by solving the original equation with a convolution or numerical method?
It seems so strange to me: as if I skirted the complexity of a nonhomogeneous differential equation (I cheated).