Independant RV's and the Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

  • Thread starter Firepanda
  • Start date
In summary, you need to show that the probability of an event being true is equal to the probability of that event happening multiplied by the probability of that event happening infinitely often.
  • #1
Firepanda
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wvcuvp.png


The first part I can do no problem!

The second part... well I've really no idea what to do with that S term, I assume it has something to do with the strong law of large numbers? (w is an element in the set of outcomes)

Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

Law of Large Numbers

Does anyone know where to start?

Thanks

edit:

I have an exmple of strong convergence showing that

if P(w : lim Xn(w) = X(w) )

then this is identically equal to

P(Xn -> X) = 1 , almost surely

So I guess I just have to show that P(Xn -> X) = 1,

So show: P(Sn(w)/n -> -1) = 1?

Probably going the wrong way around it.. not sure how Borel Cantelli links to it.
 
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  • #2
Firepanda said:
wvcuvp.png


The first part I can do no problem!

The second part... well I've really no idea what to do with that S term, I assume it has something to do with the strong law of large numbers? (w is an element in the set of outcomes)

Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

Law of Large Numbers

Does anyone know where to start?

Thanks

edit:

I have an exmple of strong convergence showing that

if P(w : lim Xn(w) = X(w) )

then this is identically equal to

P(Xn -> X) = 1 , almost surely

So I guess I just have to show that P(Xn -> X) = 1,

So show: P(Sn(w)/n -> -1) = 1?

Probably going the wrong way around it.. not sure how Borel Cantelli links to it.

It is probably simpler to re-write the problem a bit: let [itex]X_n = -1 + Y_n,[/itex] where [tex] \Pr\{Y_n = 0 \} = 1 - \frac{1}{n^2}, \mbox{ and } \Pr \{Y_n = n^2 \} = \frac{1}{n^2}. [/tex] Essentially, you want to show that [itex] \sum_{k=1}^n Y_k / n \rightarrow 0 [/itex] w.p. 1. If [itex] A = \{ Y_n > 0 \mbox{ infinitely often } \},[/itex] can you show that Pr{A} = 0?

RGV
 
  • #3
Hi RGV, you always answer my questions it seems! :)

So I need to show given the event En = Yn>0

that the sum from n=1 to inf of P(En) is finite (Borel Cantelli)

So this is the sum of n=1 to inf of 1/n2?

Which is pi^2/6, and so the probability is 0!

Correct?
 
  • #4
Also any idea on the second part of this question?

v5ltep.png


It looks like the same structure..

Thanks!
 
  • #5
bump..!
 

FAQ: Independant RV's and the Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

1. What is an independent RV?

An independent random variable (RV) is a type of probabilistic model where the outcome of one variable does not affect the outcome of another variable. In other words, the variables are not related or dependent on each other.

2. What is the Borel-Cantelli lemma?

The Borel-Cantelli lemma is a fundamental theorem in probability theory that states if an infinite sequence of events are independent, then the probability of their simultaneous occurrence is equal to the product of their individual probabilities.

3. How is the Borel-Cantelli lemma used in probability theory?

The Borel-Cantelli lemma is used to prove convergence of sequences of random variables and to determine the probability of rare events.

4. What is the relationship between independent RV's and the Borel-Cantelli lemma?

The Borel-Cantelli lemma is used to prove the independence of random variables. If the lemma holds for a sequence of events, then the corresponding random variables are also independent.

5. What are some real-world applications of independent RV's and the Borel-Cantelli lemma?

The Borel-Cantelli lemma has applications in various fields such as statistics, finance, and engineering. It can be used to analyze stock market trends, predict rare events, and model natural disasters. Additionally, it is also used in the development of algorithms and machine learning models.

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