Inequality Involves The Sides Of Triangle

In summary, the conversation was about proving a mathematical inequality involving sides of a triangle and real numbers. However, one of the participants made a mistake in their solution and apologized for it. The other participant also apologized for responding late due to personal and family matters.
  • #1
anemone
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Let $a,\,b$ and $c$ be the sides of a triangle and $x,\,y$ and $z$ are real numbers such that $x+ y+ z = 0$. Prove that $a^2yz +b^2xz+c^2xy\le 0$.
 
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  • #2
Here is my solution.
Without loss of generality, assume $c$ is the longest side of the triangle. If the triangle is obtuse or right, then $c^2 \ge a^2 + b^2$. So since $z = -x - y$, then $a^2yz + b^2xz + c^2xy = -(a^2y^2 - b^2x^2) + (c - a^2 - b^2)xy.$ Now $a^2y^2 + b^2x^2 \ge 2ab|xy| = [(a + b)^2 - a^2 - b^2]|xy| \ge (c^2 - a^2 - b^2)|xy|,$ where the last step follows from the triangle inequality $a + b > c$. Thus $-(a^2y^2 + b^2x^2) \le -(c^2 - a^2 - b^2)|xy|$, forcing

$$-(a^2y^2 + b^2x^2) + (c^2 - a^2 - b^2)xy \le -(c^2 - a^2 - b^2)|xy| + (c^2 - a^2 - b^2)xy = (c^2 - a^2 - b^2)[-|xy| + xy] \le 0.$$

Now suppose the triangle is acute. Then $c^2 < a^2 + b^2$. Since $c$ is the longest side, we also have $b^2 < a^2 + c^2$, and $a^2 < b^2 + c^2$. We can write

$$xy = \frac{z^2 - x^2 - y^2}{2},\quad yz = \frac{x^2 - y^2 - z^2}{2},\quad \text{and} \quad xz = \frac{y^2 - x^2 - z^2}{2},$$

which are derived from the equations $z^2 = (x + y)^2$, $x^2 = (y + z)^2$, and $y^2 = (x + z)^2$, respectively. Thus

$$a^2yz + b^2xz + c^2xy = -\frac{(b^2 + c^2 - a^2)x^2 + (c^2 + a^2 - b^2)y^2 + (a^2 + b^2 - c^2)z^2}{2} \le 0.\quad \text{QED}$$
 
  • #3
Well done Euge! And thanks for participating!

Here's my solution:

Since $a,\,b$ and $c$ are the lengths of a triangle we have:

$a^2≤(b+c)^2, \,b^2≤(a+c)^2, \,c^2≤(a+b)^2$ and so

$\begin{align*}a^2x+b^2y+c^2z&\le (b+c)^2x+(a+c)^2y+(a+b)^2z\\&=a^2(y+z)+b^2(x+z)+c^2(x+y)+2abz+2acy+2bcx\\&=a^2(-x)+b^2(-y)+c^2(-z)+2abz+2acy+2bcx\end{align*}$

and so our mission now has turned into proving

$2(a^2x+b^2y+c^2z)\le 2abz+2acy+2bcx$, i.e.

$a^2x+b^2y+c^2z \le abz+acy+bcx$, but that is true from the Chebyshev's inequality which says if

$ab\ge ac \ge bc$ and $x\ge y \ge z$,

\(\displaystyle abz+acy+bcx \le \frac{(ab+ac+bc)(x+y+z)}{3}=0\) since $x+y+z=0.$

Therefore we have:

$a^2x+b^2y+c^2z \le abz+acy+bcx \le 0$ (Q.E.D.)
 
  • #4
anemone said:
Well done Euge! And thanks for participating!

Here's my solution:

Since $a,\,b$ and $c$ are the lengths of a triangle we have:

$a^2≤(b+c)^2, \,b^2≤(a+c)^2, \,c^2≤(a+b)^2$ and so

$\begin{align*}a^2x+b^2y+c^2z&\le (b+c)^2x+(a+c)^2y+(a+b)^2z\\&=a^2(y+z)+b^2(x+z)+c^2(x+y)+2abz+2acy+2bcx\\&=a^2(-x)+b^2(-y)+c^2(-z)+2abz+2acy+2bcx\end{align*}$

and so our mission now has turned into proving

$2(a^2x+b^2y+c^2z)\le 2abz+2acy+2bcx$, i.e.

$a^2x+b^2y+c^2z \le abz+acy+bcx$, but that is true from the Chebyshev's inequality which says if

$ab\ge ac \ge bc$ and $x\ge y \ge z$,

\(\displaystyle abz+acy+bcx \le \frac{(ab+ac+bc)(x+y+z)}{3}=0\) since $x+y+z=0.$

Therefore we have:

$a^2x+b^2y+c^2z \le abz+acy+bcx \le 0$ (Q.E.D.)

Thankyou very much anemone and Euge
The purpose of the challenge was to prove, that $a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \le 0$ but it seems to me, that anemones end result is a different one?? Maybe I am wrong ...? Thankyou very much for clearing the matter. :eek:
 
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  • #5
Hi lfdahl,

It appears anemone tried to prove a different inequality than the one in the given problem, but even so there is an error in that solution: since $x$, $y$, and $z$ are arbitrary real numbers, it is not necessarily true that $a^2x + b^2y + c^2z \le (b + c)^2x + (c + a)^2y + (a + b)^2z$. In fact, if $x$, $y$, and $z$ are negative, then $a^2x + b^2y + c^2z > (b + c)^2x + (c + a)^2y + (a + b)^2z$. Take for instance $a = 3$, $b = 4$, $c = 5$, and $x = y = z = -1$. Then $a^2x + b^2y + c^2z = -50$, but $(b + c)^2x + (c + a)^2y + (a + b)^2z = -155 < -50$.
 
  • #6
Thank you Euge, but

$x = y = z = -1$ is not allowed, albeit: $x + y + z = 0$ :confused:
 
  • #7
Oops, I accidentally edited your post with my message, rather than post mine with a "reply with quote"! Ifdahl, if you could please, rewrite your statement over mine in an edit.

Edit: I tried to put back your question -- does it look correct? My response was this:

Sorry, I overlooked the condition $x + y + z = 0$. But the result will not hold: If $a = 3$, $b = 4$, $c = 5$, $x = -1$, $y = 1$, and $z = 0$, then $x + y + z = 0$ and the triangle with sides $a,b,c$ form a right triangle, but $a^2x + b^2y + c^2z = -9 + 16 + 0 = 7 > 0$.
 
  • #8
Thankyou Euge for the edit!My suggested solution:

WLOG, I can choose $x,y$ and $z$ such, that: $yz \ge zx \ge xy$. On the other hand, I can also choose the sides in a triangle, such that: $a^2 \le b^2 \le c^2$.

Applying Chebyshev´s sum inequality:\[3\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \le (a^2+b^2+c^2)(xy+zx+yz) \\\\ 2\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \le a^2x(y+z)+b^2y(x+z)+c^2z(x+y)=-a^2x^2-b^2y^2-c^2z^2\leq 0\]Thus \[a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \leq 0\]
 
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  • #9
lfdahl said:
Thankyou Euge for the edit!My suggested solution:

WLOG, I can choose $x,y$ and $z$ such, that: $yz \ge zx \ge xy$. On the other hand, I can also choose the sides in a triangle, such that: $a^2 \le b^2 \le c^2$.

Applying Chebyshev´s sum inequality:\[3\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \le (a^2+b^2+c^2)(xy+zx+yz) \\\\ 2\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \le a^2x(y+z)+b^2y(x+z)+c^2z(x+y)=-a^2x^2-b^2y^2-c^2z^2\leq 0\]Thus \[a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \leq 0\]
in fact $3\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \le (a^2+b^2+c^2)(xy+zx+yz)\leq 0$
for $ xy+yz+zx\leq 0$
hence
$\left ( a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy \right ) \leq 0$
 
  • #10
anemone said:
Let $a,\,b$ and $c$ be the sides of a triangle and $x,\,y$ and $z$ are real numbers such that $x+ y+ z = 0$. Prove that $a^2yz +b^2xz+c^2xy\le 0$.
my solution:
$\because (x+y+z)^2=x^2+y^2+z^2+2(xy+yz+zx)=0\\
\therefore yz+zx+xy\leq 0----(1)\\
(1)\times a^2:a^2yz+a^2zx+a^2xy\leq 0---(2)\\
(1)\times b^2:b^2yz+b^2zx+b^2xy\leq 0---(3)\\
(1)\times c^2:c^2yz+c^2zx+c^2xy\leq 0---(4)\\
(2)+(3)+(4): (a^2+b^2+c^2)(yz+zx+xy)\leq 0---(5)\\$
now we may set $yz\geq zx\geq xy$
and $a^2\leq b^2\leq c^2 (or \,\,a \leq b\leq c)$
applying Chebyshev's sum inequality we get:
$3(a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy)\leq (a^2+b^2+c^2)(yz+zx+xy)\leq 0$
that is :
$a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy\leq 0$
 
  • #11
Albert said:
my solution:
$\because (x+y+z)^2=x^2+y^2+z^2+2(xy+yz+zx)=0\\
\therefore yz+zx+xy\leq 0----(1)\\
(1)\times a^2:a^2yz+a^2zx+a^2xy\leq 0---(2)\\
(1)\times b^2:b^2yz+b^2zx+b^2xy\leq 0---(3)\\
(1)\times c^2:c^2yz+c^2zx+c^2xy\leq 0---(4)\\
(2)+(3)+(4): (a^2+b^2+c^2)(yz+zx+xy)\leq 0---(5)\\$
now we may set $yz\geq zx\geq xy$
and $a^2\leq b^2\leq c^2 (or \,\,a \leq b\leq c)$
applying Chebyshev's sum inequality we get:
$3(a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy)\leq (a^2+b^2+c^2)(yz+zx+xy)\leq 0$
that is :
$a^2yz+b^2zx+c^2xy\leq 0$
applying law of symmetry you can set
either $yz\geq zx\geq xy$ or $a^2\leq b^2\leq c^2 (or \,\,a \leq b\leq c)$ but not both as a gets tied to yz , b to xz , c to xy and any random combinations
 
  • #12
kaliprasad said:
applying law of symmetry you can set
either $yz\geq zx\geq xy$ or $a^2\leq b^2\leq c^2 (or \,\,a \leq b\leq c)$ but not both as a gets tied to yz , b to xz , c to xy and any random combinations
sure ! with different assumption,we may obtain distinct result
 
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  • #13
Sorry folks! Apparently my solution doesn't work as I have somehow misinterpreted the problem, which was silly mistake from my part...:eek:

Sorry too for my late reply as I have been pretty busy for both family and personal issue!
 
  • #14
kaliprasad said:
applying law of symmetry you can set
either $yz\geq zx\geq xy$ or $a^2\leq b^2\leq c^2 (or \,\,a \leq b\leq c)$ but not both as a gets tied to yz , b to xz , c to xy and any random combinations

You´re right, kaliprasad, therefore my suggested solution in #8 is not valid!
 

FAQ: Inequality Involves The Sides Of Triangle

How is inequality determined in a triangle?

Inequality in a triangle is determined by comparing the lengths of its three sides. If one side is longer than the sum of the other two sides, then the triangle is considered to be "unequal" or "obtuse". If one side is equal to the sum of the other two sides, then the triangle is considered to be "degenerate" or "flat".

How does inequality affect the angles of a triangle?

Inequality in a triangle affects the angles by making them unequal. In a triangle where one side is longer than the sum of the other two sides, the opposite angle will be larger. In a triangle where one side is equal to the sum of the other two sides, the opposite angle will be 0 degrees.

Can a triangle have two unequal sides and still be considered "equal"?

No, in order for a triangle to be considered "equal", all three sides must be equal in length. If two sides are unequal, then the triangle is considered to be "scalene".

How does inequality in a triangle affect its area?

Inequality in a triangle does not necessarily affect its area. The area of a triangle is determined by its base and height, not the lengths of its sides. However, the shape of the triangle may change if the sides are unequal, which could potentially affect the area.

How can inequality in a triangle be proven mathematically?

Inequality in a triangle can be proven mathematically using the triangle inequality theorem, which states that the sum of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the third side. If this condition is not met, then the triangle is considered to be "unequal".

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