- #1
KnightTheConqueror
- 16
- 8
- TL;DR Summary
- Why fundamentally Gravitational and inertial mass do not have to be equal and just a coincidence if we define the gravitational force using the inertial mass of the objects?
Why does the text saying that the Newton's framework doesn't require the two masses to be equal? If using f = ma give us inertial mass then how is f = Gm1m2/r² a different things? Isn't the law defined as the force is directionly proportional to the product of the masses and we calculated the value of G using the "inertial masses" of the objects and putting them in the equation? Then how is the gravitational and inertial mass having the same value a "co-incidence"?