- #1
Cogswell
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Homework Statement
A particle in the infinite square well has the initial wave function ## \Psi (x, 0) = Ax(a-x), (0 \le x \le a) ##, for some constant A. Outside the well, of course, ## \Psi = 0 ##.
Find ## \Psi (x,t)
2. Homework Equations :
Equation [1.0]:## \displaystyle c_n = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{a}} \int_0^a \sin \left( \dfrac{n \pi x}{a}\right) \Psi (x,0)dx ##3. The answer (that is given):
First, determine A by normalising ## \Psi (x,0) ##
## \displaystyle 1 = \int_0^a | \Psi(x,t)|^2 dx##
Therefore ## A = \sqrt{\dfrac{30}{a^5}} ##
The nth coefficient is (Equation [1.0])
## \displaystyle c_n = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{a}} \int_0^a \sin \left( \dfrac{n \pi x}{a}\right) \sqrt{\dfrac{30}{a^5}}x(a-x)dx ##
... skipped working...
## \displaystyle c_n = \dfrac{4 \sqrt{15}}{(n \pi)^3}[\cos(0) - \cos(n \pi)] ##
Therefore:
## c_n = 0 ## if n is even
## c_n = \dfrac{8 \sqrt{15}}{(n \pi)^3} ## if n is oddThus:
## \displaystyle \Psi (x,t) = \sqrt{\dfrac{30}{a}} \left( \dfrac{2}{a} \right) \sum \limits_{n=1, 3, 5...} \dfrac{1}{n^3} \sin \left( \dfrac{n \pi x}{a} \right) e^{(-in^2 \pi^2 \hbar t) / (2ma^2)} ##
4. The attempt at understanding it:
I get the normalisation part, and I get how they do the nth coefficient (hence I omitted the working) but I don't get why.
I thought all I had to do was normalise the ## \Psi (x,0)## and then add the time dependent factor to it, so shouldn't I get:
## \Psi (x,t) = \sqrt{\dfrac{30}{a^5}} x (a-x) \cdot e^{(-in^2 \pi^2 \hbar t) / (2ma^2)}##
Can someone explain this to me (in simple terms)?