- #1
RJLiberator
Gold Member
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For each series, decide whether they converge or not:
k≥1∑2/(k(k+2))
So, I am trying to use the Integral test on this problem. After applying partial fractions I receive the answer of ln(x)-ln(x+2) from 1 to infinity.
Evaluating 1 is pretty straight forward.. ln(3). Which seems to be the correct answer.
Infinity, however, leaves me with ln(infinity) - ln(infinity). My initial thinking is that this is equal to 0 and all is well.
However, is it OK to evaluate this in such a manner? Infinity-infinity=0 ??
Or is that mechanically wrong?
k≥1∑2/(k(k+2))
So, I am trying to use the Integral test on this problem. After applying partial fractions I receive the answer of ln(x)-ln(x+2) from 1 to infinity.
Evaluating 1 is pretty straight forward.. ln(3). Which seems to be the correct answer.
Infinity, however, leaves me with ln(infinity) - ln(infinity). My initial thinking is that this is equal to 0 and all is well.
However, is it OK to evaluate this in such a manner? Infinity-infinity=0 ??
Or is that mechanically wrong?