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Mr Book
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- Am I wrong about the Copenhagen Interpretation mandating causation into the past?
As if you couldn't guess from the question, I'm very much a layman wrt physics, but here it is anyway:
I've read a number of (non-technical) books on quantum physics but I can't seem to find much - indeed anything at all - on the role of time in collapse of the wave function when considering the Copenhagen interpretation. Specifically, how observation must influence past events if the Copenhagen interpretation is to be believed.
I recall reading that a group of scientists proposed an argument against the CI, questioning how observation could cause wave collapse prior to any observers existing, i.e. pre-life on Earth. On the face of it, this seemed reasonable, as how could someone alive today influence what happened billions of years in the past. But isn't that what happens with any observation? The time-span is of course shorter, with an experimental lag being the time it takes the photons to reach the eye of the observer and be processed in the brain, but the concept is the same - that the wave collapse must occur in the past, irrespective of whether 'the past' refers to a billionth of a second or ten billion years.
Am I wrong about this? If not, does anyone know where I can read about it (in laymen's terms!)
I've read a number of (non-technical) books on quantum physics but I can't seem to find much - indeed anything at all - on the role of time in collapse of the wave function when considering the Copenhagen interpretation. Specifically, how observation must influence past events if the Copenhagen interpretation is to be believed.
I recall reading that a group of scientists proposed an argument against the CI, questioning how observation could cause wave collapse prior to any observers existing, i.e. pre-life on Earth. On the face of it, this seemed reasonable, as how could someone alive today influence what happened billions of years in the past. But isn't that what happens with any observation? The time-span is of course shorter, with an experimental lag being the time it takes the photons to reach the eye of the observer and be processed in the brain, but the concept is the same - that the wave collapse must occur in the past, irrespective of whether 'the past' refers to a billionth of a second or ten billion years.
Am I wrong about this? If not, does anyone know where I can read about it (in laymen's terms!)