\int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex] vs. (\int dz G[z,y] J[z])^n

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The discussion centers on the potential transformation between two integrals involving functions G[z,y] and J[z]. It questions whether an explicit transformation can be established to derive one integral from the other. The consensus suggests that such a transformation is unlikely due to the possibility of divergent behavior in the first integral while the second remains well-defined for certain functions. However, interest remains in exploring transformations for specific classes of G and J. Overall, the transformation does not exist in general terms.
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If one is given two known functions G[x,y] and J[y], is there an explicit transformation that could be constructed to give us either one of the following integrals from the other?

\int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex]<br /> \left( \int dz G[z,y] J[z] \right)^n [/itex]&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Here n is an integer.&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Thanks!
 
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Ahh made tex won't work in titles, better name it integrals or something. I would imagine that transformation is not possible, but I don't know.
 
I would imagine not because it's not too hard to come up with G and J which give your first integral as divergent over particular domains for certain n and your second one well defined.
 
AlphaNumeric said:
I would imagine not because it's not too hard to come up with G and J which give your first integral as divergent over particular domains for certain n and your second one well defined.

This means the transformation doesn't exist in all generality. But I'd be interested in such a transformation even for restricted classes of G and J.
 

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