- #1
pmqable
- 13
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the definite integral is: integral from 0 to 1 of ln(x). i used integration by parts (u=ln(x), du=1/x dx, dv=dx, v=x) to show that the integral is equal to:
[x*ln(x)] (1,0) - integral from 0 to 1 of dx.
this gives 1*ln(1)-0*ln(0)-(1-0)
ln(1)=0, so the equation is now
0*ln(0)-1
0*ln(0) is an indeterminate form, so i used the limit:
lim x-->0 x*ln(x)
lim x-->0 ln(x)/(1/x)
lim x-->0 (1/x)/(-1/x^2)
lim x-->0 -x
=0.
so the area is 0-1=-1, which doesn't make sense. what did i do wrong?
[x*ln(x)] (1,0) - integral from 0 to 1 of dx.
this gives 1*ln(1)-0*ln(0)-(1-0)
ln(1)=0, so the equation is now
0*ln(0)-1
0*ln(0) is an indeterminate form, so i used the limit:
lim x-->0 x*ln(x)
lim x-->0 ln(x)/(1/x)
lim x-->0 (1/x)/(-1/x^2)
lim x-->0 -x
=0.
so the area is 0-1=-1, which doesn't make sense. what did i do wrong?
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