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I am taking a short course of complex variables and am trying to understand how to evaluate the integral:
[tex]\int\frac{dx}{1+x^{2}} [/tex] (1) where the integration is from -infinity to +infinity.
To do this, we must, apparently consider:
[tex]\oint\frac{dz}{1+z^2}[/tex] (2). The closed loop is a countour which is a semi circle of radius R about the origin containing ONLY the +i singularity (there are two singularities, +i and -i). .
Ofcourse we may write [tex]\frac{1}{1+z^2}=-\frac{1}{2i}\left(\frac{1}{z+i}-\frac{1}{z-i}\right)[/tex]
Thus the residue at z=i is 1/2i. Therefore the integral (2) is 2pi*i*res(z=i)=pi
This implies (I can't understand why) the Integral (1) EQUALS Integral (2)=pi.
Questions:
1)why do we consider only a loop containing one of the singularities (+i)?
2)why is integral (1), with limits going from -infinity to plus infinity EQUAL to the same integral, with weird limits (-R to R along a semi circle, then along real axis from -R to R)?
Thanks in advance:)
[tex]\int\frac{dx}{1+x^{2}} [/tex] (1) where the integration is from -infinity to +infinity.
To do this, we must, apparently consider:
[tex]\oint\frac{dz}{1+z^2}[/tex] (2). The closed loop is a countour which is a semi circle of radius R about the origin containing ONLY the +i singularity (there are two singularities, +i and -i). .
Ofcourse we may write [tex]\frac{1}{1+z^2}=-\frac{1}{2i}\left(\frac{1}{z+i}-\frac{1}{z-i}\right)[/tex]
Thus the residue at z=i is 1/2i. Therefore the integral (2) is 2pi*i*res(z=i)=pi
This implies (I can't understand why) the Integral (1) EQUALS Integral (2)=pi.
Questions:
1)why do we consider only a loop containing one of the singularities (+i)?
2)why is integral (1), with limits going from -infinity to plus infinity EQUAL to the same integral, with weird limits (-R to R along a semi circle, then along real axis from -R to R)?
Thanks in advance:)