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kairama15
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I am attempting to prove Newton's shell theorem. There are multiple solutions to this problem, but I am attempting a solution involving adding up the gravitational force of an infinite number of infinitely small disks that are placed together (the discs facing a point mass "m") to form a sphere. I am only focused on this approach as I am interested in this particular method of the proof.
known equations:
Force of gravity of a disc distance "d" away and of radius "a" = (2*G*M*m/a^2)*(1-d/sqrt(d^2+a^2)) (got from https://sciphy.in/gravitational-field-due-to-uniform-disc/ ; and I am comfortable with this equation and its derivation)
So, if I place a small point mass m at the origin of the xyz axis, and a disk whose center is distance x along the x-axis away from the origin, and the very thin disc is of weight "dM" the force of gravity of the disk is:
F=(2*G*m*dM/a^2)*(1-x/sqrt(x^2+a^2))
But suppose I have a sphere of radius "r" made of an infinite number of infinitely small discs at that same distance away, the height "a" of the surface of the sphere (or discs for that matter) above the x-axis is :
a=sqrt(r^2-(x-d)^2) (note that: if x=d, a=r. if x= (d-r) or (d+r), a=0) (This equation is simply the equation of a circle with radius R displaced from a distance "d" from the origin).
I also know the mass of the thin disc "dM" will change depending on its radius as the discs change shape as they stack together to make a sphere. And the weight of a small disc will be: dM=M*pi*(R^2-(x-d)^2)*dx / ( (4/3)*pi*R^3). I got this equation noticing that a thin slice of a sphere will have volume of : area*dx / volume of a sphere. The area is just pi*radius^2 where the radius follows the function sqrt(R^2-(x-d)^2). (note how this small mass of dM is intuitive when analyzed: If this dM is integrated from -R to R, dM=M, as we would expect for the full weight of the disc. And, at x= (d-r) or (d+r), dM=0 because the disc is infinitely small.)
Plugging dM and "a" into the above equation, I get:
F = [ (2*G*M*pi*(R^2-(x-d)^2) / ( (4/3)*pi*R^3 * (R^2-(x-d)^2) ] * (1-x/sqrt(x^2+R^2-(x-d)^2) ) .
Simplifying,
F= [ 3*G*M/(2*R^3) ] * ( 1 - x/sqrt(x^2+R^2-(x-d)^2 ) * dx
Integrating this from one end of the set of discs (d-r) to the other end of the set of discs (d+r), I get a really crazy integral and it doesn't simplify to GMm/d^2 as Newton so famously described. Any help on where I am going wrong setting up this integral?
known equations:
Force of gravity of a disc distance "d" away and of radius "a" = (2*G*M*m/a^2)*(1-d/sqrt(d^2+a^2)) (got from https://sciphy.in/gravitational-field-due-to-uniform-disc/ ; and I am comfortable with this equation and its derivation)
So, if I place a small point mass m at the origin of the xyz axis, and a disk whose center is distance x along the x-axis away from the origin, and the very thin disc is of weight "dM" the force of gravity of the disk is:
F=(2*G*m*dM/a^2)*(1-x/sqrt(x^2+a^2))
But suppose I have a sphere of radius "r" made of an infinite number of infinitely small discs at that same distance away, the height "a" of the surface of the sphere (or discs for that matter) above the x-axis is :
a=sqrt(r^2-(x-d)^2) (note that: if x=d, a=r. if x= (d-r) or (d+r), a=0) (This equation is simply the equation of a circle with radius R displaced from a distance "d" from the origin).
I also know the mass of the thin disc "dM" will change depending on its radius as the discs change shape as they stack together to make a sphere. And the weight of a small disc will be: dM=M*pi*(R^2-(x-d)^2)*dx / ( (4/3)*pi*R^3). I got this equation noticing that a thin slice of a sphere will have volume of : area*dx / volume of a sphere. The area is just pi*radius^2 where the radius follows the function sqrt(R^2-(x-d)^2). (note how this small mass of dM is intuitive when analyzed: If this dM is integrated from -R to R, dM=M, as we would expect for the full weight of the disc. And, at x= (d-r) or (d+r), dM=0 because the disc is infinitely small.)
Plugging dM and "a" into the above equation, I get:
F = [ (2*G*M*pi*(R^2-(x-d)^2) / ( (4/3)*pi*R^3 * (R^2-(x-d)^2) ] * (1-x/sqrt(x^2+R^2-(x-d)^2) ) .
Simplifying,
F= [ 3*G*M/(2*R^3) ] * ( 1 - x/sqrt(x^2+R^2-(x-d)^2 ) * dx
Integrating this from one end of the set of discs (d-r) to the other end of the set of discs (d+r), I get a really crazy integral and it doesn't simplify to GMm/d^2 as Newton so famously described. Any help on where I am going wrong setting up this integral?