- #1
jdstokes
- 523
- 1
It is often stated that the transition amplitude between eigenstates of the free-field Hamiltonian [itex]H_0[/itex] is encoded by the S-matrix, defined by
[itex]\langle \mathrm{f} | U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex].
where [itex]U_{\mathrm{I}}[/itex] is the time-evolution operator in the interaction picture (e.g., [1]).
I would argue that this is not correct, and that the correct expression should be
[itex]S_{\mathrm{fi}}=\langle \mathrm{f} | U_0(\infty,-\infty) U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex]
where [itex]U_0(t,t') = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} H_0 (t-t')}[/itex] is the time-evolution operator for the free-field.
My argument is quite simple, the transition amplitude in the Schrodinger picture is
[itex]\langle \mathrm{f} | U_{\mathrm{S}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex].
It is easy to show, however, that the Schrodinger evolution operator is related to the interaction evolution operator by [itex]U_{\mathrm{S}} = U_0 U_{\mathrm{I}}[/itex]. My argument seems to be supported by [2]. However, it concerns me that this is not addressed in mainstream QFT books.
Does anyone have any word on this apparent discrepancy?
[1] Mandl and Shaw, Quantum Field Theory.
[2] http://www.nyu.edu/classes/tuckerman/stat.mechII/lectures/lecture_21/node3.html
[itex]\langle \mathrm{f} | U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex].
where [itex]U_{\mathrm{I}}[/itex] is the time-evolution operator in the interaction picture (e.g., [1]).
I would argue that this is not correct, and that the correct expression should be
[itex]S_{\mathrm{fi}}=\langle \mathrm{f} | U_0(\infty,-\infty) U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex]
where [itex]U_0(t,t') = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} H_0 (t-t')}[/itex] is the time-evolution operator for the free-field.
My argument is quite simple, the transition amplitude in the Schrodinger picture is
[itex]\langle \mathrm{f} | U_{\mathrm{S}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle[/itex].
It is easy to show, however, that the Schrodinger evolution operator is related to the interaction evolution operator by [itex]U_{\mathrm{S}} = U_0 U_{\mathrm{I}}[/itex]. My argument seems to be supported by [2]. However, it concerns me that this is not addressed in mainstream QFT books.
Does anyone have any word on this apparent discrepancy?
[1] Mandl and Shaw, Quantum Field Theory.
[2] http://www.nyu.edu/classes/tuckerman/stat.mechII/lectures/lecture_21/node3.html