- #1
jaumzaum
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Every difraction/multiple slit article I've read until now consider the intensity of the middle fringe to be N times the intensity of the single light sources (in difraction I've divided the slit into n small light sources, that means that N.I0 = I = the intensity of the light reaching the whole slit).
This statement in completelly wrong! It consider that all light beams emmited by each light source does not have a phase difference! This would be a good aproximation if we consider the slit size d to be aproximatelly equal to the wave lenght. But it would still be a aproximation. What if the slit size were very bigger than the wave lenght? Let's say a λ=1000nm, d=1mm and L (distance of the screen to the slit) = 1m. This would give
I = 0.88 I0
The result would be very smaller if d = 2, 3 or 10mm
And all those numbers are plausible (the example I calculated λ=1000nm, d=1mm and L= 1m is even in Tipler's book)
http://img22.imageshack.us/img22/5834/sadgdfgdg.png
The path difference is
θ=[itex](\sqrt{L^{2}+x^{2}}-L)*2\pi/\lambda[/itex]
So we have to integrate Sin[θ] from {x, -d/2, d/2}. The problem is that this integral have to be aproximated. A small aprox for the amplitude A is A0 times
http://img803.imageshack.us/img803/3166/sdgfghg.png
So why the books insist to say the intensity does not change?
This statement in completelly wrong! It consider that all light beams emmited by each light source does not have a phase difference! This would be a good aproximation if we consider the slit size d to be aproximatelly equal to the wave lenght. But it would still be a aproximation. What if the slit size were very bigger than the wave lenght? Let's say a λ=1000nm, d=1mm and L (distance of the screen to the slit) = 1m. This would give
I = 0.88 I0
The result would be very smaller if d = 2, 3 or 10mm
And all those numbers are plausible (the example I calculated λ=1000nm, d=1mm and L= 1m is even in Tipler's book)
http://img22.imageshack.us/img22/5834/sadgdfgdg.png
The path difference is
θ=[itex](\sqrt{L^{2}+x^{2}}-L)*2\pi/\lambda[/itex]
So we have to integrate Sin[θ] from {x, -d/2, d/2}. The problem is that this integral have to be aproximated. A small aprox for the amplitude A is A0 times
http://img803.imageshack.us/img803/3166/sdgfghg.png
So why the books insist to say the intensity does not change?
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