- #1
blastoise
- 22
- 0
Ok,
I understand an inverse function sends a variable in the range to the corresponding value in the domain, but am not sure if what I'm thinking is correct... : For example:
Let A be the set
[itex] A = \{1,2,3,7,8\} ; B = \{4,5,6\} [/itex] and the function [itex] f [/itex] map A to B s.t
f(1) = 4
f(2) = 5
f(3) = 6
so 7,8 do not have a value that is mapped one to one.
I understand f is an surjection, but not a injection . But, does an inverse function exist?
I would say yes, despite there not being a value in B that maps to 7 or 8.
Is my thinking correct?
Also, am I correct to say that a function does not have to use every element in the domain in order to have an inverse; I am confused because wouldn't one just say it maps to the null set and the inverse of the null set would contain values(7,8) that it maps to and hence not a function...?
I understand an inverse function sends a variable in the range to the corresponding value in the domain, but am not sure if what I'm thinking is correct... : For example:
Let A be the set
[itex] A = \{1,2,3,7,8\} ; B = \{4,5,6\} [/itex] and the function [itex] f [/itex] map A to B s.t
f(1) = 4
f(2) = 5
f(3) = 6
so 7,8 do not have a value that is mapped one to one.
I understand f is an surjection, but not a injection . But, does an inverse function exist?
I would say yes, despite there not being a value in B that maps to 7 or 8.
Is my thinking correct?
Also, am I correct to say that a function does not have to use every element in the domain in order to have an inverse; I am confused because wouldn't one just say it maps to the null set and the inverse of the null set would contain values(7,8) that it maps to and hence not a function...?