- #1
DrewD
- 529
- 28
How would you answer the following question?
If ##(f\circ g)(x)=x##, then ##g## is the inverse function of ##f##. True/False?
This is on a test that I gave and I now think it is a bad question, but I'm tired and I want to hear some other people's impressions. The wording of the question is exactly what I wrote above.
If ##(f\circ g)(x)=x##, then ##g## is the inverse function of ##f##. True/False?
This is on a test that I gave and I now think it is a bad question, but I'm tired and I want to hear some other people's impressions. The wording of the question is exactly what I wrote above.