- #1
metdave
- 5
- 0
I am reviewing some material on Laplace Transforms, specifically in the context of solving PDEs, and have a question.
Suppose I have an Inverse Laplace Transform of the form u(s,t)=e^((as^2+bs)t) where a,b<0. How can I invert this with respect to s, giving a function u(x,t)? Would the inverse transform simply be a convolution?
Thanks!
David
Suppose I have an Inverse Laplace Transform of the form u(s,t)=e^((as^2+bs)t) where a,b<0. How can I invert this with respect to s, giving a function u(x,t)? Would the inverse transform simply be a convolution?
Thanks!
David