- #1
eljose79
- 1,518
- 1
Let be a series Sum(0,infinite)anX^n=f(x) then could it be inverted to get the an?..in fact if we set x=1/Z the series becomes
anZ^-n=Zeta transform of an so we could invert this (as seen in mathworld.com),could it be done to get the an?..thanks.
anZ^-n=Zeta transform of an so we could invert this (as seen in mathworld.com),could it be done to get the an?..thanks.