- #1
erszega
- 36
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I am trying to prove (or find a counterexample for) this:
Let n be any positive integer, and m any odd integer, with 1 <= m < 2^n. Also, let B(x,y) denote the binomial coefficient, x! /( y! ( x - y )! ). Then
2^n | B( 2^n , m ).
Any help is welcome.
Let n be any positive integer, and m any odd integer, with 1 <= m < 2^n. Also, let B(x,y) denote the binomial coefficient, x! /( y! ( x - y )! ). Then
2^n | B( 2^n , m ).
Any help is welcome.