- #1
physicsxu
- 5
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Is acceleration due to friction constant for a given coefficient of friction? Say you are driving in a car very slowly and you hit the brakes, or you are driving in a car a little bit faster and you hit the breaks, assuming you are driving in the same car on the same road, would the acceleration due to friction be the same in both cases?
My guess is yes, it would, by using the equation Ff = ukFg
ma = ukmg
a = ukg
the uk and g are constant, so a must be constant as well.
Can anyone solidify or correct my understanding of this concept?
My guess is yes, it would, by using the equation Ff = ukFg
ma = ukmg
a = ukg
the uk and g are constant, so a must be constant as well.
Can anyone solidify or correct my understanding of this concept?