- #1
wywong
- 146
- 6
The article Energy expenditure in adults living in developing compared with industrialized countries: a meta-analysis of doubly labeled water studies has the following shocking conclusion:
The authors argued that the lack of physical activities in industrialized countries had little effect on the people's energy expenditure and thus current increases in energy intake were sufficient to explain the significant increase in obesity prevalence.
My question is: how can TEE be adjusted for weight, when the variate (weight) is probably a function of the output (TEE)?
Thanks in advance,
wywong
Conclusion: TEE (total energy expenditure) adjusted for weight and age or PAL (physical activity level) did not differ significantly between developing and industrialized countries, which calls into question the role of energy expenditure in the cause of obesity at the population level.
The authors argued that the lack of physical activities in industrialized countries had little effect on the people's energy expenditure and thus current increases in energy intake were sufficient to explain the significant increase in obesity prevalence.
My question is: how can TEE be adjusted for weight, when the variate (weight) is probably a function of the output (TEE)?
Thanks in advance,
wywong