Is $f$ a one-to-one function on $S$?

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In summary: This proves $a) \Leftrightarrow c)$.In summary, the statements $a)$, $b)$, $c)$, and $d)$ are equivalent for a function $f:S\to T$. This means that if $f$ is one-to-one on $S$, then for any subsets $A$ and $B$ of $S$, $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$, $f^{-1}[f(A)] = A$ for every subset $A$ of $S$, and for all disjoint subsets $A$ and $B$ of $S$, the images $f(A)$ and $f(B)$ are also disjoint. These equivalencies can be
  • #1
Dustinsfl
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Let $f:S\to T$ be a function.
Prove that the following statements are equivalent.a
$f$ is one-to-one on $S$.

b
$f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ for all subsets $A,B$ of $S$.

c
$f^{-1}[f(A)] = A$ for every subset $A$ of $S$.

d
For all disjoint subsets $A$ and $B$ of $S$, the images $f(A)$ and $f(B)$ are disjoint.

Having a tough time with this one.
 
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  • #2
dwsmith said:
Let $f:S\to T$ be a function.
Prove that the following statements are equivalent.
a
$f$ is one-to-one on $S$.

b
$f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ for all subsets $A,B$ of $S$.
For any function $f$ we have $f(A\cap B)\subseteq f(A)\cap f(B)$.
So suppose that $f$ is one-to-one and $t\in f(A)\cap f(B)$.
$\left( {\exists {a_t} \in A} \right)\left[ {f({a_t}) = t} \right]~\&~\left( {\exists {b_t} \in B} \right)\left[ {f({b_t}) = t} \right]$.
Use one-to-one to prove $t\in f(A\cap B)$.

Now start with $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ and continue.
 
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  • #3
Plato said:
For any function $f$ we have $f(A\cap B)\subseteq f(A)\cap f(B)$.
So suppose that $f$ is one-to-one and $t\in f(A)\cap f(B)$.
$\left( {\exists {a_t} \in A} \right)\left[ {f({a_t}) = t} \right]~\&~\left( {\exists {b_t} \in B} \right)\left[ {f({b_t}) = t} \right]$.
Use one-to-one to prove $t\in f(A\cap B)$.

Now start with $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ and continue.
How can $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ be used to show c is true? I don't get it.
 
  • #4
dwsmith said:
How can $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ be used to show c is true? I don't get it.
I would show that $a) \Leftrightarrow c)$.
 
  • #5
Note that $f^{-1}(f(A))\supseteq A$, so one only has to show $f^{-1}(f(A))\subseteq A$. Suppose $f^{-1}(f(A))=A\cup B$ where $A\cap B=\emptyset$. Using (b) show that $f(B)=\emptyset$ and therefore $B=\emptyset$.
 

FAQ: Is $f$ a one-to-one function on $S$?

What are equivalent statements?

Equivalent statements are two or more sentences or phrases that convey the same meaning or convey the same information. They may use different words or sentence structures, but ultimately they have the same logical meaning.

How do you determine if two statements are equivalent?

To determine if two statements are equivalent, you can use logical operations such as negation, conjunction, and disjunction. If the truth values of the statements are the same under all possible conditions, then they are considered equivalent.

Can equivalent statements have different levels of formality?

Yes, equivalent statements can have different levels of formality. For example, a more formal statement may use technical or scientific language while a less formal statement may use everyday language. However, they still convey the same meaning and are considered equivalent.

Do equivalent statements always have the same grammatical structure?

No, equivalent statements do not always have the same grammatical structure. For example, a statement in the form of a question can be equivalent to a statement in the form of a statement. What is important is that the logical meaning remains the same.

How can understanding equivalent statements be useful in science?

Understanding equivalent statements is crucial in science because it allows scientists to simplify and compare complex ideas or theories. By breaking down complex concepts into equivalent statements, scientists can better understand and communicate their findings and theories to others.

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