- #1
mahmoud2011
- 88
- 0
Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
[itex]f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!}[/itex] where p,n and q are natural numbers .
Is that true that [itex]f_{n}^{(2n)}[/itex] is always an integer for any natural number n .
Thanks .
[itex]f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!}[/itex] where p,n and q are natural numbers .
Is that true that [itex]f_{n}^{(2n)}[/itex] is always an integer for any natural number n .
Thanks .