- #1
bomba923
- 763
- 0
Quick question~
Is it true that
[tex] \forall p,q,r \in \mathbb{N} \text{ where } p > q > 0 , [/tex]
[tex] \exists \left\{ {a_0 ,a_1 ,a_2 , \ldots ,a_n } \right\} \subset \bigcup\limits_{i = 0}^{p - 1} {\left\{ {\frac{i}{q}} \right\}} {\text{ such that }}\frac{r}{q} = \sum\limits_{k = 0}^n { a_k \left( \frac{p}{q} \right) ^ k } \;\, ? [/tex]
Is it true that
[tex] \forall p,q,r \in \mathbb{N} \text{ where } p > q > 0 , [/tex]
[tex] \exists \left\{ {a_0 ,a_1 ,a_2 , \ldots ,a_n } \right\} \subset \bigcup\limits_{i = 0}^{p - 1} {\left\{ {\frac{i}{q}} \right\}} {\text{ such that }}\frac{r}{q} = \sum\limits_{k = 0}^n { a_k \left( \frac{p}{q} \right) ^ k } \;\, ? [/tex]
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